ML24052A045

Examination Report Letter No. 50-156/OL-24-01, University of Wisconsin

ML24052A045
Person / Time
Site:	University of Wisconsin
Issue date:	06/25/2024
From:	Travis Tate NRC/NRR/DANU/UNPO
To:	Agasie R Univ of Wisconsin - Madison
References
50-156/24-001
Download: ML24052A045 (1)

Text

Robert Agasie, Reactor Director University of Wisconsin 1209 Mechanical Engineering Building 1513 University Avenue Madison, WI 53706-1687

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-156/OL-24-01, UNIVERSITY OF WISCONSIN

Dear Robert Agasie:

During the week of May 27, 2024, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered operator licensing examinations at your University of Wisconsin research reactor.

The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC website at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Michele DeSouza at 301-415-0747 or via email at Michele.DeSouza@nrc.gov.

Sincerely, Travis L. Tate, Chief Non-Power Production and Utilization Facility Oversight Branch Division of Advanced Reactors and Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-156

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-156/OL-24-01

2. Written examination cc: w/enclosures to GovDelivery SubscribersJune 25, 2024 Signed by Tate, Travis on 06/25/24

ML24052A044 NRR-079 OFFICE NRR/DANU/UNPO/CE NRR/DANU/UNPO/OLA NRR/DANU/UNPO/BC NAME MDeSouza NJones TTate DATE 6/25/2024 6/25/2024 6/25/2024 U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT

REPORT NO.: 50-284/24-01

FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-284

FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-110

FACILITY: University of Wisconsin - Madison

EXAMINATION DATES: Week of May 27, 2024

SUBMITTED BY: Michele C. DeSouza 6/11/2024 Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Date Examiner

SUMMARY

During the week of May 27, 2024, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations to three Reactor Operator (RO) candidates. The candidates passed all applicable portions of the examinations and tests.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiner: Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner, NRC

2. Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL

Written 3/0 0/0 3/0

Operating Tests 3/0 0/0 3/0

Overall 3/0 0/0 3/0

3. Exit Meeting:

Robert Agasie, Reactor Director, UWI Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner, NRC Maggie Goodwin, Reactor Engineer, NRC

Prior to administration of the written examination, based on facility comments, adjustments were accepted. Comments provided corrections and additional clarity to questions/answers and identified where changes were appropriate based on current facility conditions.

Upon completion of all operator licensing examinations, the NRC examiner met with facility staff representatives to discuss the results. At the conclusion of the meeting, the NRC examiner thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examination.

Enclosure 1 University of Wisconsin - Madison

Operator Licensing Examination

Week of May 27, 2024

Enclosure 2 U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION

FACILITY: University of Wisconsin -

Madison

REACTOR TYPE: TRIGA

DATE ADMINISTERED: 05/29/2024

CANDIDATE: _______________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY

20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS

20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS

20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS

60.00 % TOTALS FINAL GRADE

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics

A N S W E R S H E E T

Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a b c d ___

A02 a b c d ___

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

A07 a b c d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a b c d ___

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a b c d ___

A14 a b c d ___

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a b c d ___

A19 a b c d ___

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

A N S W E R S H E E T

Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a b c d ___

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___

B06 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

B07 a b c d ___

B08 a b c d ___

B09 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.25 each)

B10 a b c d ___

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a b c d ___

B15 a b c d ___

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

B20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

A N S W E R S H E E T

Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your Answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a ________ b ________ c ________ d ________ (0.50 each)

C03 a b c d ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___

C09 a b c d ___

C10 a b c d ___

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS

During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.

6. Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.

12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

EQUATION SHEET

2 Qmc T mH UAT P 0.1sec1 P max 2 eff

t S S P P0e SCR *1104 sec 1Keff

SUR 26.06eff CR CR P P 10SUR(t) 1 1 2 2 0

1

• P P CR11 KeffCR2 1Keff 0 1 2

1 Keff 1 CR2 Keff2Keff1 M 1 M 1 Keff2 1 Keff CR1 Keff1Keff2

=+ 1 Keff 0.693 SDM T K 1 eff 2

Keff1 K DR d 2 DR d 2 DR 6Ci En eff 1 1 2 2 2 R

2 2 DR DR et 2 1 0 Peak Peak 2 1

DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet

1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lb 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr

1 BTU = 778 ft-lb °F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lb °C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lb/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.01 [1.0 point]

The process in which a neutron strikes a nucleus leaving the nucleus in an excited state is referred to as:

a. Elastic scattering.

b. Inelastic scattering.

c. Photoelectric effect.

d. Neutron annihilation.

QUESTION A.02 [1.0 point]

How long will it take power to triple, given a reactor period of 32 seconds?

a. 35 seconds

b. 43 seconds

c. 67 seconds

d. 92 seconds

QUESTION A.03 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the primary heat transfer mechanism through the cladding of a fuel rod?

a. Conduction

b. Convection

c. Radiation

d. Mass transfer Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.04 [1.0 point]

What is the effective multiplication factor, given the source strength is 10,000 neutrons per second and it produces the stable neutron count rate of 50,000 N/sec?

a. 0.6

b. 0.7

c. 0.8

d. 0.9

QUESTION A.05 [1.0 point]

Xenon-135 is formed from __________ decay of __________.

a. Beta, Barium-135

b. Alpha, Cesium-136

c. Beta, Iodine-135

d. Alpha, Tellirium-135

QUESTION A.06 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the following statements in Column A with the result in Column B to complete the following statements. Answers in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

As moderator temperature increases, [Column A] [Column B].

Column A Column B

a. Fast Fission Factor Increases

b. Thermal Non-Leakage Probability Decreases

c. Resonance Escape Probability Stays the same

d. Thermal Utilization Factor Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.07 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is defined as the balance between the rate of production of fast neutrons from thermal fission and rate of absorption of thermal neutrons by the fuel?

a. Utilization factor

b. Reproduction factor

c. Infinite Multiplication factor

d. Effective multiplication factor

QUESTION A.08 [1.0 point]

The following data was obtained during a reactor fuel load.

Step No. of Elements Detector A (count/sec) 1 0 170 2 2 190 3 5 225 4 9 300 5 13 500

The estimated number of additional elements required to achieve criticality is between:

a. 1 to 2

b. 3 to 4

c. 5 to 7

d. 8 to 10

QUESTION A.09 [1.0 point]

Delayed neutrons contribute more to reactor stability than prompt neutrons because they

__________ the average neutron generation time and are born at a __________ kinetic energy.

a. Decrease, lower

b. Decrease, higher

c. Increase, lower

d. Increase, higher Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.10 [1.0 point]

Excess reactivity is the amount of reactivity __________.

a. associated with burnable poisons.

b. needed to achieve prompt criticality.

c. available above that which is required to make the reactor critical.

d. available above that which is required to make the reactor subcritical.

QUESTION A.11 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following has a long-term effect on k-effective but is of no consequence during short term and transient operation?

a. Fuel burnup

b. Increase in fuel temperature

c. Increase in moderator temperature

d. Xenon and Samarium fission products

QUESTION A.12 [1.0 point]

Following a reactor scram, the period meter will indicate __________ because __________.

a. Slightly positive; the neutron source is providing detectable neutron count rate to keep the reactor slightly supercritical.

b. 0 seconds; the reactor is subcritical and reactor power is decreasing.

c. -80 seconds; the fuel temperature coefficient adds positive reactivity as a result of the decrease in fuel temperature following a scram.

d. -80 seconds; of the decay constant for the longest-lived neutron precursor.

Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following isotopes is an example of a fissile material?

a. U-233

b. U-238

c. Th-232

d. Pu-240

QUESTION A.14 [1.0 point]

During a reactor startup, criticality occurred at a LOWER height than the last start up. Which ONE of the following reasons might be the cause?

a. Moderator temperature increased

b. Adding an experiment with negative reactivity

c. Adding an experiment with a positive reactivity

d. Maintenance on the control rods resulted in a slightly faster rod speed

QUESTION A.15 [1.0 point]

An experimenter inserts an experiment into the core, and the count rate decreases to 60 cps from 100 cps. Given the initial k-effective of the reactor is 0.92, what is the worth of the experiment?

= + 0.03a.

= - 0.04b.

c. = + 0.05

= - 0.07d.

Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.16 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following describes any point on a Differential Rod Worth Curve?

a. The negative reactivity added as the rod is inserted.

b. The cumulative area under the differential curve starting from the bottom of the core.

c. The zero reactivity when the rod is on the bottom and the positive reactivity being added as the rod is withdrawn.

d. The amount of reactivity that one unit (e.g. one inch, one percent) of rod motion would insert at that position in the core.

QUESTION A.17 [1.0 point]

Inelastic scattering can be described as a process whereby a neutron collides with a nucleus in an excited state. What does the nucleus later emit?

a. only a beta particle

b. a beta particle and a neutron with lower energy

c. a gamma ray and a neutron with a higher energy

d. a gamma ray and a neutron with a lower energy

QUESTION A.18 [1.0 point]

The reactor is critical and increasing in power. Power has increased from 10 watts to 800 watts in 90 seconds. How long, at this rate, will it take power to increase from 4 kW to 10 kW? Note:

Neglect any negative temperature coefficient.

a. 1.9 seconds

b. 12 seconds

c. 16 seconds

d. 19 seconds Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics

QUESTION A.19 [1.0 point]

The Thermal Utilization Factor is defined as:

a. The ratio of the number of thermal neutrons produced by fission in a generation to the number of total neutrons produced by fission in the previous generation.

b. The ratio of the number of thermal neutrons absorbed in fuel to the number of thermal neutrons absorbed in the reactor material.

c. The ratio of the number of fast neutrons absorbed in fuel to the number of fast neutrons absorbed in the reactor material.

d. The ratio of the number of fast neutrons produced by thermal fission to the number of thermal neutrons absorbed in the fuel.

QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point]

Following a reactor scram, what is the reason for the 80 second period?

a. Ability of U-235 to fission with source neutrons

b. Decay constant for the longest-lived neutron precursors

c. The amount of negative reactivity added during a scram is greater than the shutdown margin

d. Fuel temperature coefficient adds positive reactivity as a result of the decrease in fuel temperature

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.01 [1.0 point]

In the event of a suspected fuel leak, which ONE of the following nuclides would be present?

a. N-16

b. Ar-41

c. Fe-60

d. Kr-85

QUESTION B.02 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the definition of Committed Dose Equivalent?

a. The sum of external deep dose equivalent and the organ dose equivalent.

b. The dose equivalent that the whole body receives from sources outside the body.

c. The sum of the effective dose equivalent (for external exposures) and the committed effective dose equivalent (for internal exposures).

d. The dose equivalent to organs or tissues that will be received from an intake of radioactive material by an individual during the 50-year period following the intake.

QUESTION B.03 [1.0 point]

According to the UWNR Emergency Plan, the MAXIMUM exposure and intake limit for life threatening situations is __________.

a. 5 REM

b. 10 REM

c. 15 REM

d. 25 REM

QUESTION B.04 [1.0 point]

An irradiated sample has a dose rate of 1.2 rem/hr as indicated at a distance of 1 foot from the sample. How far from the irradiated sample will the dose rate read 100 mrem/hr?

NOTE: 1ft = 30.48cm

a. 3.16 ft.

b. 5.17 ft.

c. 94.33 cm Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

d. 105.59 cm.

QUESTION B.05 [1.0 point]

What is the MINIMUM number of hours per calendar quarter you must perform the functions of an RO to maintain an active RO license in accordance with 10 CFR Part 55.53(e)?

a. 4 hours4.62963e-5 days <br />0.00111 hours <br />6.613757e-6 weeks <br />1.522e-6 months <br />

b. 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br />

c. 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />

d. 7 hours8.101852e-5 days <br />0.00194 hours <br />1.157407e-5 weeks <br />2.6635e-6 months <br />

QUESTION B.06 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Identify each of the following surveillances as a channel check (CHECK), a channel test (TEST) or a channel calibration (CAL).

a. During a reactor startup, you verify a reactor period interlock.

b. During reactor operations, you compare radiation monitor readings.

c. During annual shutdown, you adjust the continuous air monitor scram set point to match recent data collected.

d. During a startup, you verify the reactor interlock system by performing simultaneous withdrawal of two control rods.

QUESTION B.07 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following defines the UWNR Emergency Support Center?

a. The area that consists of the control room and reactor bay.

b. The area, including the Mechanical Engineering building and extending 100 feet in every direction from center of the reactor.

c. The area that consists of the suite of the reactor offices rooms, 1205-1226, of the Mechanical Engineering Building.

d. The area for which offsite emergency planning is performed to assure that prompt and effective actions can be taken to protect public in the event of an accident.

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.08 [1.0 point]

The radiation level in the control room is 85 mrem/hour, and the operator is in the control room for 15 minutes. How much dose will the operator receive?

a. 11.6 mrem

b. 21.3 mrem

c. 32.5 mrem

d. 38.9 mrem

QUESTION B.09 [1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Fill out the blanks with the Limiting Safety Systems Setting (LSSS) or Limiting Conditions of Operation (LCO) listed in the UWNR Technical Specifications.

Safety Sytem LSSS/LCO

a. Pulse limit __________ % k/k

b. Core excess reactivity h3hk/k

c. Steady State reactor power 3h²u

d. Pool water temperature hF

QUESTION B.10 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following changes would require submittal to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission for approval prior to implementation?

a. Add a new limit to the pre-startup checklist procedure

b. Replace a primary coolant pump with an identical one

c. Delete section 6.3, Radiation Safety listed in the UWNR Technical Specifications

d. Add more responsibilities to the Radiation Protection Officer listed in the health physics procedure Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.11 [1.0 point]

In accordance with 10 CFR 20, individual members of the public are limited to an annual TEDE of:

a. 50 mrem.

b. 100 mrem.

c. 500 mrem.

d. 5000 mrem.

QUESTION B.12 [1.0 point]

According to the UWNR Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following conditions will violate the Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS)?

a. Pulse reactivity insertion exceeds 1.4%k/k.

b. Steady state reactor power exceeds 1.25 MW.

c. Instrumented fuel temperature exceeds 380C.

d. An unanticipated change in reactivity of one dollar.

QUESTION B.13 [1.0 point]

In accordance with UWNR Technical Specifications, substantive changes to procedures must be approved by which ONE of the following?

a. Reactor Operator

b. Senior Reactor Operator

c. Reactor Director

d. Reactor Safety Committee

QUESTION B.14 [1.0 point]

You are currently a licensed operator at UWNR. Which ONE of the following would be a violation of 10 CFR Part 55.53 Conditions of licenses?

a. Your last medical examination was 16 months ago.

b. Last quarter you were the licensed operator for 6 hours6.944444e-5 days <br />0.00167 hours <br />9.920635e-6 weeks <br />2.283e-6 months <br />.

c. The new requalification program cycle started 18 months ago.

d. Your last requalification operating test was 13 months ago.

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.15 [1.0 point]

Per UWNR Emergency Procedures, which ONE of the following does not have a classification?

a. Reactor Facility receives a bomb threat.

b. Security breach of the reactor facility.

c. Laboratory fire that is extinguished in 5 minutes.

d. Severe fuel cladding leak, with the pool emptying, and ventilation does not work.

QUESTION B.16 [1.0 point]

In accordance with UWNR Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following shall have the responsibility for maintaining radiation exposures ALARA and for implementation of laboratory procedures are in compliance with 10 CFR 20?

a. Reactor Operator

b. Senior Reactor Operator

c. Reactor Director

d. Reactor Safety Committee

QUESTION B.17 [1.0 point]

In order to ensure the health and safety of the public, 10 CFR 50.54(x) allows the operator to deviate from Technical Specifications in an emergency. What is the minimum level of authorization needed to deviate from Technical Specifications in accordance with 10 CFR 50.54(y)?

a. Senior Reactor Operator

b. Radiation Laboratory Director

c. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

d. Reactor Director Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

QUESTION B.18 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following experiments DOES NOT require double encapsulation?

a. Non-corrosive liquid

b. Gaseous material

c. Solid material susceptible to flaking

d. Solid material

QUESTION B.19 [1.0 point]

An experiment reading 30 rem/hr was removed from the reactor. Five hours later, it reads 10 rem/h. What is the half-life of the experiment?

a. 1.23

b. 3.15

c. 5.13

d. 6.98

QUESTION B.20 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following defines the term Radiation Area?

a. Any area to which access is limited for any reason.

b. Any area to which access is limited for the purpose of protecting individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials.

c. Area where radiation exposure rates would result in a dose equivalent in excess of 5 mrem (0.05 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source.

d. Area where radiation exposure rates would result in a dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source.

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.01 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the poison section in the UWNR safety blades?

a. Aluminum and Carbon

b. Stainless steel and Graphite

c. Aluminum and Boron

d. Graphite and Carbon

QUESTION C.02 [2.0 point, 0.50 each]

During steady state operation, the transient rod is rising from 11 to 16 inches. Select (OPEN/CLOSED) for the limit switches and (ON/OFF) for the lights. Note: OPEN means it is not activated.

a. Air switch (OPEN/CLOSED)

b. ENGD AIR light (ON/OFF)

c. Drive UP limit switch (OPEN/CLOSED)

d. Rod DOWN limit switch (OPEN/CLOSED)

QUESTION C.03 [1.0 point]

During a fuel element inspection, the traverse bend of a fuel element exceeds the original by 0.10 inches. Which ONE of the following is required next?

a. Continue the fuel inspections, the bend is within UWNR Technical Specifications.

b. Continue with the elongation measurements, both measurements need to fail to take action.

c. Stop the fuel inspection, and immediately report to the reactor supervisor.

d. Proceed to evaluate all fuel elements and then report the number of damaged elements to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.04 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following conditions is the MAIN purpose a nuclear reactor core requires a neutron source for startup?

a. Ensure the reactor change from subcritical to critical by using a neutron source only.

b. Prevent the period from becoming too short and resulting in an advertent power excursion.

c. Provide enough delayed neutrons for all the nuclear instrumentation before the reactor can go critical.

d. Provide a reference point where all instruments undergo a check before the reactor is brought to a critical position.

QUESTION C.05 [1.0 point]

The figure below depicts which ONE of the following nuclear instrumentation detectors?

a. Fission Chamber

b. Geiger-Mueller Detector

c. Compensated Ion Chamber

d. Uncompensated Ion Chamber Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.06 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the UWNR fuel?

a. High enrichment (>20% U-235) UZrH, clad with stainless steel.

b. Low enrichment (<20% U-235) UZrH, clad with aluminum.

c. High enrichment (>20% U-235) UZrH, clad with aluminum.

d. Low enrichment (<20% U-235) UZrH, clad with stainless steel.

QUESTION C.07 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following radionuclides is of concern and may be produced in significant quantities in the reactor pool?

a. Nitrogen-16

b. Argon-41

c. Cobalt-60

d. Cesium-137

QUESTION C.08 [1.0 point]

What is the neutron source used for startup at UWNR?

a. Plutonium-Beryllium

b. Radium-Beryllium

c. Americium-Beryllium

d. Neptunium-Antimony

QUESTION C.09 [1.0 point]

What is the purpose of the emergency venting mode?

a. The emergency venting mode is intended to relieve small overpressures as in the reactor building.

b. The emergency venting mode is intended to maintain the building differential pressure.

c. The emergency venting mode is intended to rapidly change the air in the reactor laboratory to prevent the spread of contamination.

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

d. The emergency venting mode is intended to serve as a backup to the normal facility ventilation system during high reactor power operations.

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.10 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the describes the safety blade position indication?

a. As the blade moves, it moves into or out of a coil, generating a signal proportional to blade position.

b. A logic circuit receives input from two sensors that count 100 pulses per revolution along with detecting direction, converting these signals to blade position.

c. As the blade moves up and down, the magnet opens and closes a series of over 1000 limits switches that generate a signal which is converted to blade position.

d. The position indication is an odometer style mechanical counter with a contact wiper on each unit disc that closes a circuit for each digit of the specific unit.

QUESTION C.11 [1.0 point]

The UWNR fuel element reflector is __________.

a. Boron

b. Graphite

c. Cadmium

d. Aluminum

QUESTION C.12 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following represents the reactor being in a secured condition?

a. Insufficient fuel to attain criticality.

b. The reactor is subcritical by at least 0.7%k/k.

c. The reactor is in the blade drop test mode and a licensed operator is in direct charge of the operation.

d. Regulating blade replacement is in progress with the control power key switch in the OFF position, key removed and/or secured or in direct control of a licensed operator.

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.13 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the gas used to move a sample into and out of the reactor pneumatic transfer system?

a. Air

b. Nitrogen

c. Hydrogen

d. Carbon Dioxide

QUESTION C.14 [1.0 point]

You are the reactor operator half-way through a 6-hour operation at full power. You realize that all of the stack exhaust fans are off and cannot turn on. Which ONE of the following actions should you take?

a. Immediately secure reactor operation, this is a UNWR Technical Specifications violation.

b. Secure the reactor once you finish the run, it is NOT a Technical Specifications because the supply fans were still running.

c. Continue with reactor operations. 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> are permitted to repair the exhaust fans before it becomes a violation.

d. Continue with reactor operations. There are no UWNR Technical Specifications violations or issues with the exhaust fans being secured.

QUESTION C.15 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the signal received from the Log-N Channel, neutron flux monitoring channel?

a. Linear - a result from the reactor power in a generally straight or nearly straight line.

b. Period - the time required for the reactor power to change by a factor of 2.718.

c. Percent Power - ability to readout in a way specified by a certain amount resulting from the reactor power.

d. Count rate - the total number of emissions per amount of time as a result of the reactor power.

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.16 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the anti-siphon system in the primary system?

a. The anti-siphon system ensures the core does not become uncovered during a loss of coolant event by admitting a fixed volume of air into the high point of the primary coolant piping in the event of a primary coolant system rupture.

b. The anti-siphon system ensures the core does not become uncovered during a loss of coolant event by admitting a fixed volume of water into the high point of the primary coolant piping in the event of a primary coolant system rupture.

c. The anti-siphon system ensures the core does not become uncovered during a loss of coolant event by automatically closing a series of valves in the primary piping system when the pool level drops to 12 feet above the core.

d. The anti-siphon system ensures the core does not become uncovered during a loss of coolant event by alarming in the control room when the pool level drops to 12 feet above the core to alert the operator that manual action must be taken to close a series of valves in the primary piping system.

QUESTION C.17 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the reactor power level that initiates the diffuser pump when it is set to AUTOMATIC?

a. 25 kW

b. 50 kW

c. 75 kW

d. 100 kW

QUESTION C.18 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements describes the Continuous Air Monitor (CAM) and the Stack Air Monitor (SAM)?

a. CAM and SAM both measure gaseous and particulate activity.

b. SAM measures gaseous activity and the CAM measures particulate activity.

c. CAM measures gaseous activity and the SAM measures gaseous and particulate.

d. SAM measures gaseous activity and the CAM measures gaseous and particulate activity.

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

QUESTION C.19 [1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the transfer mechanism by forced flow with no heat transfer, when the reactor is at full power?

a. Cooling the pool.

b. Cooling the core.

c. Removal of ions by the demineralizer.

d. Return of a sample in the Whale System.

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

((********** END OF EXAMINATION **********))

Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics

A.01 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 1, Module 1, page 45

A.02 Answer: a

Reference:

P = P0et/T 3 = 1

• et/32 t = 32

• ln(3) t = 35.2 sec

A.03 Answer: a

Reference:

LaMarsh, 3rd ed., Section 8.3

A.04 Answer: c

Reference:

CR = S/(1-K) 50000 = 10000/(1 - K) = 1 -X = 10000/50000 K = 0.8

A.05 Answer: c

Reference:

LaMarsh, 3rd ed., Section 7.5

A.06 Answer: a. Stays the same; b. Decreases; c. Decreases; d. Decreases

Reference:

UWNR NE 234, Reactor Physics III,Section II.B, page 4 DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 2, Module 3, page 2-9

A.07 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, NP-03, page 6

A.08 Answer: c

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 5.5, page 5-18 to 5-25

A.09 Answer: c

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 3.2.4 & 3.4.4, page 3-33

A.10 Answer: c

Reference:

DOE Handbook, Fundamentals of Nuclear Engineering, Chapter 3, page 61

A.11 Answer: a

Reference:

Standard NRC question

A.12 Answer: d

Reference:

DOE Handbook Nuclear Physics & Reactor Theory, Volume 1, Module 2, page 7 Category A - Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics

A.13 Answer: a

Reference:

NRC Glossary, Fertile material, Fissionable material, Fissile material

A.14 Answer: c

Reference:

Standard NRC question

A.15 Answer: d

Reference:

CR1 / CR2 = (1 - Keff2) / (1 - Keff1) 100 / 60 = (1 - Keff2) / (1 - 0.92)

Therefore Keff2 = 0.867

= (K eff2 - Keff1) / (Keff2

• Keff1)

= (0.867 - 0.92) / (0.867

• 0.92)

= - 0.0664

A.16 Answer: d

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Example 7.2(b), page 7-4

A.17 Answer: d

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 2.4.5, page 2-29

A.18 Answer: d

Reference:

P = P et/T 800 = 10*e (90 sec/T)

T = 20.54sec 10 kW = 4 kW*e (t/20.54) t = 19 sec

A.19 Answer: b

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Volume 2, Module 3, p. 4

A.20 Answer: b

Reference:

LaMarsh, 3rd ed., page 345

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

B.01 Answer: d

Reference:

Standard NRC question

B.02 Answer: d

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1003

B.03 Answer: d

Reference:

UWNR Emergency Plan 7.4

B.04 Answer: d

Reference:

DR1*(D1)² = DR2*(D2)² 1200 mrem (1)² = 100 mrem (d)² D = 3.46 ft. x 30.48 cm = 105.59 cm

B.05 Answer: a

Reference:

10 CFR 55.59

B.06 Answer: a. Test; b. Check; c. Cal; d. Test

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications Definitions

B.07 Answer: c

Reference:

UWNR EP 2.0

B.08 Answer: b

Reference:

Dose = DR*T 85 mRem/hr/60 minutes = 1.42 mRem/min 1.42mRem/min

• 15 min = 21.3 mRem

B.09 Answer: a. 1.4; b. 5.6; c. 125; d. 130

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications 2.2, 3.1.1, 3.1.3, and 3.2.4

B.10 Answer: c

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications changes requires an amendment

B.11 Answer: b

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1301

B.12 Answer: b

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications 2.2 Category B - Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls

B.13 Answer: d

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications 6.4

B.14 Answer: d

Reference:

10 CFR 55.59(a)(1)

B.15 Answer: c

Reference:

UWNR Emergency Plan Table 2

B.16 Answer: c

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications 6.3

B.17 Answer: a

Reference:

10CFR50.54(y)

B.18 Answer: d

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications 3.8.2.5 and UWNR 131, Production of Radioisotopes in Nuclear Reactor, Section D.1, pages 3-5

B.19 Answer: b

Reference:

DR=DR,T1 = 0.693 0

2 DR = DR0 e-.693/T1/2 10 = 30 e-(.693)(5)/T1/2 0.33 = e-(.693)(5)/T1/2 ln(0.33) = ln(e-(.693)(5)/T1/2)

-1.099 = -3.465 / T1/2 T1/2 = -3.465 / -1.099 T1/2 = 3.15 hr

B.20 Answer: c

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1003

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

C.01 Answer: c

Reference:

UWNR SAR 4.2.2.2

C.02 Answer: a. CLOSED; b. ON; c. OPEN; d. OPEN

Reference:

Standard NRC question

C.03 Answer: a

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications 3.1.6

C.04 Answer: b

Reference:

UWNR SAR 4.2.4

C.05 Answer: c

Reference:

UWNR NE-234, page 6, Figure 4

C.06 Answer: d

Reference:

UWNR SAR Figure 4-4

C.07 Answer: a

Reference:

Standard NRC question

C.08 Answer: b

Reference:

UWNR SAR 4.2.4

C.09 Answer: c

Reference:

UWNR SAR 9.1.5

C.10 Answer: d

Reference:

UWNR SAR 4.2.2.5.1

C.11 Answer: b

Reference:

UWNR SAR 4.1.2 and 4.2.3

C.12 Answer: a

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications Definitions

C.13 Answer: d

Reference:

UWNR SAR 4.1.3.4 Category C - Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

C.14 Answer: a

Reference:

UWNR Technical Specifications 3.5

C.15 Answer: b

Reference:

UWNR NE 234, Control and Instrumentation II.3, page 7

C.16 Answer: a

Reference:

UWNR SAR 4.3

C.17 Answer: d

Reference:

UWNR SAR 7.2.3

C.18 Answer: a

Reference:

UWNR SAR 7.7.2

C.19 Answer: c

Reference:

Standard NRC question

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

((********** END OF EXAMINATION **********))