ML24052A220

Examination Report Letter No. 50-288/OL-24-01, Reed College

ML24052A220
Person / Time
Site:	Reed College
Issue date:	05/08/2024
From:	Travis Tate NRC/NRR/DANU/UNPO
To:	Newhouse J Reed College
References
50-288/24-001 50-288/OL-24
Download: ML24052A220 (33)

Text

Jerry Newhouse, Director Reed College Reed Research Reactor 3203 Southeast Woodstock Boulevard Portland, OR 97202-8199

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-288/OL-24-01, REED COLLEGE

Dear Jerry Newhouse:

During the week of March 11-20, 2024, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered an operator licensing examination at your Reed College Research Reactor. The examinations were conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report at the conclusion of the examination.

In accordance with Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 2.390, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC website at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html. The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. Should you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Amy Beasten at (301) 415-8341 or via email at Amy.Beasten@nrc.gov.

Sincerely, Travis L. Tate, Chief Non-Power Production and Utilization Facility Oversight Branch Division of Advanced Reactors and Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation Docket No. 50-288

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-288/OL-24-01

2. Written Examination cc: w/enclosures to GovDelivery Subscribers May 8, 2024 Signed by Tate, Travis on 05/08/24

ML24052A220 NRR-079 OFFICE NRR/DANU/UNPO/CE NRR/DANU/UNPO/CE NRR/DANU/UNPO/OLA NRR/DANU/UNPO/BC NAME ABeasten MDeSouza NJones TTate DATE 5/8/2024 5/8/2024 5/8/2024 5/8/2024 U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT REPORT NO.:

50-288/OL 24-01 FACILITY DOCKET NO.:

50-288 FACILITY LICENSE NO.:

R-112 FACILITY:

Reed Research Reactor EXAMINATION DATES:

Week of March 11, 2024 SUBMITTED BY:

SUMMARY

During the weeks of March 11 and 18, 2024, the NRC administered operator licensing examinations to thirteen Reactor Operating (RO) candidates. Four RO candidates failed the written examination and passed the operating examination. The remaining nine RO candidates passed all applicable portions of the examination.

REPORT DETAILS 1.

Examiner:

Amy E. Beasten, PhD, Chief Examiner, NRC Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner, NRC 2.

Results:

RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 9/4 0/0 9/4 Operating Tests 13/0 0/0 13/0 Overall 9/4 0/0 9/4 3.

Exit Meeting:

Amy E. Beasten, PhD, Chief Examiner, NRC Michele C. DeSouza, Chief Examiner, NRC Jerry Newhouse, Director, Reed Research Reactor, Toria Ellis, Reactor Operations Manager, Reed Research Reactor Prior to administration of the written exam, based on facility comments, adjustments were accepted. Comments provided corrections and additional clarity to questions/answers and identified where changes were appropriate based on current facility conditions. Upon completion of all operator licensing examinations, the NRC examiners met with facility staff representatives to discuss the results and observations. At the conclusion of the meeting, the NRC examiners thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examination.

Amy Beasten 4/26/2024 Name, Chief Examiner Date

Reed Research Reactor Operator Licensing Examination Week of March 11, 2024

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION FACILITY:

Reed Research Reactor REACTOR TYPE:

TRIGA DATE ADMINISTERED:

March 14, 2024 CANDIDATE:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the Answer sheet provided. Attach all Answer sheets to the examination. Point values are indicated in parentheses for each question. A 70% in each category is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% OF CATEGORY % OF CANDIDATE'S CATEGORY VALUE TOTAL SCORE VALUE CATEGORY 20.00 33.3 A. REACTOR THEORY, THERMODYNAMICS AND FACILITY OPERATING CHARACTERISTICS 20.00 33.3 B. NORMAL AND EMERGENCY OPERATING PROCEDURES AND RADIOLOGICAL CONTROLS 20.00 33.3 C. FACILITY AND RADIATION MONITORING SYSTEMS 60.00 % TOTALS FINAL GRADE All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

Candidate's Signature

NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1.

Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2.

After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination. This must be done after you complete the examination.

3.

Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4.

Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5.

Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each Answer sheet.

6.

Mark your Answers on the Answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7.

The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8.

If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9.

When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and Answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10.

Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your Answer is on your Answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11.

To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.

12.

There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, & Facility Operating Characteristics A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.

A01 a b c d ___

A02 a _____ b _____ c _____ d _____ (0.25 each)

A03 a b c d ___

A04 a b c d ___

A05 a b c d ___

A06 a b c d ___

A07 a b c d ___

A08 a b c d ___

A09 a b c d ___

A10 a _____ b _____ c _____ d _____ (0.25 each)

A11 a b c d ___

A12 a b c d ___

A13 a _____ b _____ c _____ d _____ (0.25 each)

A14 a b c d ___

A15 a b c d ___

A16 a b c d ___

A17 a b c d ___

A18 a b c d ___

A19 a b c d ___

A20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.

B01 a b c d ___

B02 a b c d ___

B03 a b c d ___

B04 a b c d ___

B05 a b c d ___

B06 a b c d ___

B07 a b c d ___

B08 a b c d ___

B09 a b c d ___

B10 a b c d ___

B11 a b c d ___

B12 a b c d ___

B13 a b c d ___

B14 a _____ b _____ c _____ d _____ (0.25 each)

B15 a b c d ___

B16 a b c d ___

B17 a b c d ___

B18 a b c d ___

B19 a b c d ___

B20 a _____ b _____ c _____ d _____ (0.25 each)

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems A N S W E R S H E E T Multiple Choice (Circle or X your choice)

If you change your answer, write your selection in the blank.

C01 a b c d ___

C02 a _____ b _____ c _____ (0.33 each)

C03 a b c d ___

C04 a b c d ___

C05 a b c d ___

C06 a b c d ___

C07 a b c d ___

C08 a b c d ___

C09 a b c d ___

C10 a _____ b _____ c _____ d _____ (0.25 each)

C11 a b c d ___

C12 a b c d ___

C13 a b c d ___

C14 a b c d ___

C15 a b c d ___

C16 a b c d ___

C17 a b c d ___

C18 a b c d ___

C19 a b c d ___

C20 a b c d ___

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

(********** END OF EXAMINATION **********)

EQUATION SHEET

=

+

1 Curie = 3.7 x 1010 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lb 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 103 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 106 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lb

°F = 9/5 °C + 32 1 gal (H2O) 8 lb

°C = 5/9 (°F - 32) cP = 1.0 BTU/hr/lb/°F cp = 1 cal/sec/gm/°C

2 2

max

P 1

sec 1.0

eff

T UA H

m T

c m

Q P

2 1

1 1

2 1

eff eff K

CR K

CR

2 2

1 1

CR CR sec 10 1

4

eff K

S S

SCR

1

eff SUR 06 26

te P

P 0

)

(

0 10 t

SUR P

P 1

2 1

1 CR CR K

M eff

0 1

P P

2 1

1 1

eff eff K

K M

eff eff K

K SDM

1 2

1 1

2 eff eff eff eff K

K K

K

693

.0 2

1 T

eff eff K

K 1

2 2

2 2

1 1

d DR d

DR

t e

DR DR

0

1 2

1 2

2 2

Peak Peak

2 6

R n

E Ci DR

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.01

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements best describes integral rod worth?

a.

The area under the curve represents the cumulative effect of withdrawing a control rod a specific amount from the core.

b.

The area under the curve represents the cumulative effect of withdrawing a control rod a specific distance from the core.

c.

The total reactivity worth of the rod at a particular degree of withdrawal.

d.

The reactivity change per unit movement of a rod.

QUESTION A.02

[1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the decay mode in Column A with the definition in Column B. Answers in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A a.

Alpha decay b.

Beta-minus decay c.

Beta-plus decay d.

Electron capture Column B 1.

Conversion of a proton to a neutron and a positron, which is ejected from the nucleus. (n-1) 2.

Conversion of a neutron to a proton and an electron, which is ejected from the nucleus. (n+1) 3.

Nucleus absorbs an electron from the innermost orbital, which combines with a proton to form a neutron.

4.

Emission of a helium particle from an unstable nucleus.

QUESTION A.03

[1.0 point]

All of the following affect the thermal utilization factor EXCEPT:

a.

Change in moderator temperature.

b.

Temperature of the fuel.

c.

Enrichment of U-235.

d.

Amount of neutron poisons.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.04

[1.0 point]

During each fission event with a thermal neutron in U-235, ________ is released immediately, and _______ is delayed.

a.

187 MeV; 23 MeV b.

167 MeV; 10 MeV c.

210 MeV; 23 MeV d.

200 MeV; 10 MeV QUESTION A.05

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements regarding fission with thermal neutrons is true?

a.

U-235 fissions with thermal neutrons because the binding energy released by the absorption of a neutron is less than the critical energy for fission.

b.

U-235 fissions with thermal neutrons because the binding energy released by the absorption of a neutron is greater than the critical energy for fission.

c.

U-238 fissions with thermal neutrons because the binding energy released by the absorption of a neutron is less than the critical energy for fission.

d.

U-238 fissions with thermal neutrons because the binding energy released by the absorption of a neutron is greater than the critical energy for fission.

QUESTION A.06

[1.0 point]

A subcritical reactor has a keff of 0.819. How much reactivity is added to change the keff to 0.950?

a.

0.085 b.

0.168 c.

0.461 d.

0.594

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.07

[1.0 point]

Given a reactor period of 30 seconds, how long will it take for reactor power to quadruple?

a.

7.0 seconds b.

20.8 seconds c.

41.6 seconds d.

62.4 seconds QUESTION A.08

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the effective multiplication factor, keff?

a.

The ratio of the number of total neutrons produced by fission in one generation to the number of neutrons lost through leakage and absorption in the preceding generation.

b.

The ratio of the number of fast neutrons produced by fission in one generation to the number of fast neutrons lost through leakage and absorption in the preceding generation.

c.

The ratio of the number of thermal neutrons produced by fission in one generation to the number of thermal neutrons lost through leakage and absorption in the preceding generation.

d.

The ratio of the number of total neutrons produced by fission in one generation to the number of neutrons lost through absorption in the preceding generation.

QUESTION A.09

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements is NOT a result of increases in moderator temperature during reactor operation?

a.

Thermal non-leakage probability increases.

b.

Rod worth decreases.

c.

Resonance escape probability decreases.

d.

Thermal utilization factor increases.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.10

[1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Complete the decay chain below by matching the blanks in Column A with the isotopes listed in Column B. Answers in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

19 0 1+ 6.57 0 1+ 135 54 69.1 0

1+ 2.3E6 0 1+ (stable)

Column A a.

A b.

B c.

C d.

D Column B 1.

135 53 I 2.

135 55 Cs 3.

135 56 Ba 4.

135 52 Te QUESTION A.11

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements best describes the prompt negative temperature coefficient of a TRIGA reactor?

a.

As fuel temperature increases, the concentration of fission product poisons in the fuel matrix increase, adding negative reactivity through increased neutron absorption.

b.

As fuel temperature increases, U-235 in the fuel is consumed, causing Pu-239 to form which becomes additional sources of fission causing control rods to be withdrawn farther, adding negative reactivity.

c.

As fuel temperature increases, moderator temperature increases rapidly through conduction heat transfer, adding negative reactivity.

d.

As fuel temperature increases, oscillating hydrogen in the ZrH lattice imparts energy to a thermal neutron, increasing the mean free path and the probability of escape.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.12

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the difference between prompt and delayed neutrons?

a.

Prompt neutrons are produced from spontaneous fission of U-235 in the fuel, and delayed neutrons are the result of fission in U-238.

b.

Prompt neutrons are produced immediately and directly from the fission event and delayed neutrons are produced immediately following the first beta decay of fission fragments.

c.

Prompt neutrons are responsible for the ability to control the rate at which power can rise in the reactor and delayed neutrons are responsible for the rate at which a reactor can be shut down.

d.

Prompt neutrons ensure there is a sufficient neutron population to overcome the effects of fission product poisoning following a shutdown and delayed neutrons are responsible for lengthening the neutron generation time to ensure the reactor does not go prompt critical.

QUESTION A.13

[1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the isotope in Column A with the type of material in Column B. Options in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A a.

Th-232 b.

U-233 c.

U-238 d.

U-235 Column B 1.

Fissile 2.

Fissionable 3.

Fertile QUESTION A.14

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the effect of Xe-135 on normal reactor operation?

a.

When Xe-135 is formed, kinetic energy in the form of heat is released, causing increases in moderator temperature and subsequently decreases in reactor power over the course of normal reactor operation.

b.

Xe-135 has a large mass which causes increased scattering collisions, slowing more neutrons to thermal energies as the concentration builds up over time.

c.

Xe-135 has a large thermal neutron absorption cross-section, which causes large removal of thermal neutrons from the core, causing negative reactivity addition.

d.

Xe-135 is inert and therefore has no impact on reactor operations.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.15

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following parameters is the MOST significant in determining the differential rod worth of a control rod?

a.

Flux shape b.

Rod speed c.

Fuel temperature d.

Reactor power QUESTION A.16

[1.0 point]

The figure below shows a trace of reactor period as a function of time. Which ONE of the following describes reactor power from point A to point C?

a.

Reactor power is constant.

b.

Reactor power is increasing continually.

c.

Reactor power is increasing, then stable.

d.

Reactor power is increasing, then decreasing, then stable.

QUESTION A.17

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes inelastic scattering?

a.

A neutron interacts with a target nucleus and momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.

b.

A neutron is absorbed by the target nucleus to form a compound nucleus, which emits a neutron with lower kinetic energy, and the resulting excited state nucleus emits a gamma.

c.

A neutron is absorbed by the target nucleus to form a compound nucleus, which releases its excitation energy by emitting a gamma ray.

d.

A neutron is absorbed by the target nucleus to form a compound nucleus, which ejects an alpha particle or proton.

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics QUESTION A.18

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following defines eff?

a.

The fraction of all fission neutrons born as delayed neutrons.

b.

The fraction of neutrons at fast energies born as delayed neutrons.

c.

The fraction of neutrons at thermal energies born as delayed neutrons.

d.

The average of the total delayed neutron fractions of the different types of fuel.

QUESTION A.19

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the difference between moderators and reflectors?

a.

Moderators scatter neutrons to decrease leakage from the core and reflectors thermalize neutrons.

b.

Moderators absorb thermal neutrons and reflectors scatter fast neutrons.

c.

Moderators scatter fast neutrons and reflectors scatter thermal neutrons.

d.

Moderators thermalize neutrons and reflectors scatter neutrons to decrease leakage from the core.

QUESTION A.20

[1.0 point]

What is the condition of the reactor when =

1 1 eff?

a.

Prompt critical b.

Supercritical c.

Critical d.

Subcritical

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.01

[1.0 point]

In accordance with the Reed Emergency Plan, which ONE of the following statements about the Emergency Coordinator is NOT true?

a.

Any Reactor Operator may initiate emergency action.

b.

The Emergency Coordinator is responsible for assessing the severity of the event.

c.

Once assumed, the Emergency Coordinator always maintains their responsibilities for the duration of the event.

d.

The Emergency Coordinator has the responsibility for termination an emergency event.

QUESTION B.02

[1.0 point]

In accordance with SOP 1, Reactor Operation, a core excess must be performed before bringing the reactor critical during all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

a.

After a same day startup b.

After samples have been loaded into the Lazy Susan c.

Before the first startup of the day d.

Before performing control rod calibrations QUESTION B.03

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following actions should be taken FIRST in the event of an earthquake, in accordance with EIP E?

a.

Scram the reactor and verify scram.

b.

Take cover.

c.

Secure the primary and secondary pump.

d.

Assume the role of Emergency Coordinator and classify the event.

QUESTION B.04

[1.0 point]

You are currently a licensed operator at the Reed Research Reactor. Which ONE of the following conditions would be a violation of 10 CFR 55.53, Conditions of licenses?

a.

Your last medical exam was 18 months ago.

b.

Last quarter, you were the licensed operator for 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br />.

c.

The new requalification program cycle started 24 months ago.

d.

Your last requalification written examination was 13 months ago.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.05

[1.0 point]

All of the following are true statements regarding Reed Technical Specification surveillance requirements EXCEPT:

a.

Most surveillance requirements may be deferred during a reactor shutdown.

b.

Surveillances that cannot be completed while the reactor is operating may be deferred until the reactor is shutdown.

c.

Surveillance requirements that are deferred during reactor shutdown must be performed as soon as possible after the reactor restarts.

d.

Any modifications or maintenance to the reactor ventilation system must be tested in accordance with license specifications to ensure operability.

QUESTION B.06

[1.0 point]

An experiment reading 35 mrem/hr was removed from the reactor. Four hours later, it reads 10 mrem/h. What is the half-life of the experiment?

a.

0.45 hr b.

0.90 hr c.

1.10 hr d.

2.21 hr QUESTION B.07

[1.0 point]

All of the following instructions are true in accordance with SOP 35.4.3, Recovering a Dropped Fuel Element, EXCEPT:

a.

The Senior Reactor Operator is responsible for directing fuel element recovery.

b.

The ventilation system must immediately be placed in isolation.

c.

If no significant damage is found the element may be returned to its original core position.

d.

Immediately inform the Operator of Record.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.08

[1.0 point]

In accordance with the Reed Emergency Plan, in the event of a radiological emergency the Emergency Coordinator may authorize radiation exposures in excess of normal 10 CFR Part 20 operational limits. Which ONE of the following individuals can fulfill this role?

a.

Campus Safety Officer b.

Dean of Faculty c.

Reactor Operations Committee d.

Reactor Operations Manager QUESTION B.09

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following defines the term High Radiation Area?

a.

Any area to which access is limited for any reason.

b.

Any area to which access is limited for the purpose of protecting individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials.

c.

Area where radiation exposure rates would result in a dose equivalent in excess of 5 mrem (0.05 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source.

d.

Area where radiation exposure rates would result in a dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in one hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source.

QUESTION B.10

[1.0 point]

The radiation level in the control room is 175 mrem/hour, and the operator is in the control room for 7 minutes. How much dose will the operator receive?

a.

25.0 mrem b.

20.4 mrem c.

12.5 mrem d.

2.92 mrem

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.11

[1.0 point]

In accordance with the Reed Emergency Plan, exposures in excess of 10 CFR Part 20 limits up to ______ may be authorized during a radiological emergency for life saving or corrective actions.

a.

25 mrem b.

250 mrem c.

2.5 rem d.

25 rem QUESTION B.12

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following statements is NOT true regarding staffing requirements for fuel movement?

a.

At least three people are required to be present at all times for fuel movement.

b.

All individuals handling fuel must be RAM Handling Certified.

c.

A licensed Reactor Operator must be present in the control room during any fuel movement.

d.

No normal fuel movement may occur without at least one Reactor Operations Committee representative present.

QUESTION B.13

[1.0 point]

An irradiated sample has a dose rate of 5.0 rem/hr as indicated at a distance of 2 feet from the sample. How far from the irradiated sample will the dose rate read 100 mrem/hr?

a.

0.45 ft.

b.

2.52 ft.

c.

14.1 ft.

d.

44.7 ft.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.14

[1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the Technical Specification required surveillance in Column A with the surveillance frequency in Column B. Options in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A a.

Control rod drive visual inspection b.

Channel test of reactor bay ventilation system c.

RAM channel calibration d.

Reactor pool water conductivity measurement Column B 1.

Weekly 2.

Monthly 3.

Quarterly 4.

Annually QUESTION B.15

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the definition of the Emergency Planning Zone, in accordance with the Reed Emergency Plan?

a.

The boundary or the reactor room and control room, including the adjoining Psychology Building and extending 250 feet in every direction from the center of the reactor b.

The physical area defined by the Reactor Bay, the Mechanical Equipment Room, the Control Room, the Hallway, the Loft, the Classroom, the Radiochemistry Lab, the Counting Room, the Break Room, the Storeroom, the sump area, the stairway, and the Restroom c.

The boundary of the Reed College Campus d.

The reactor room and control room QUESTION B.16

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following actions should be taken FIRST in accordance with SOP 2 in the event of an inadvertent dropped control rod?

a.

Scram the reactor.

b.

Initiate the Emergency Notification Call List (ENCL).

c.

Attempt to withdraw the rod back to its original position.

d.

Drive the other control rods into the core.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.17

[1.0 point]

According to Reed Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following conditions is NOT permissible?

a.

Shutdown margin > $0.50 b.

Control rod reactivity addition rate $0.16 per second c.

Bulk pool water temperature < 40°C d.

Excess reactivity $3.00 QUESTION B.18

[1.0 point]

In accordance with 10 CFR 20, individual members of the public are limited to a dose rate in an unrestricted area from an external source:

a.

2 mrem/hr.

b.

20 mrem/hr.

c.

200 mrem/hr.

d.

2000 mrem/hr.

QUESTION B.19

[1.0 point]

In accordance with SOP 10, Irradiation Preparation, which ONE of the following materials MAY NOT be irradiated without special approval?

a.

Samples containing elemental bismuth, or substances where bismuth is a major component.

b.

Material containing 1 mg of thorium per sample container.

c.

Samples which may be reactive with water.

d.

Samples containing Cs-137.

Category B: Normal/Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls QUESTION B.20

[1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Match the event in Column A with the Emergency Action Level classification in Column B. Options in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A a.

Discovery of a bomb within the reactor facility.

b.

Tornado spotted within the site boundary c.

A fire affecting the control room that cannot be extinguished within 15 minutes d.

Unauthorized entry to the reactor facility Column B 1.

Notification of Unusual Event 2.

Alert 3.

Site Area Emergency

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.01

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes what happens when a scram signal is received?

a.

When the reactor is scrammed, the electromagnet is deenergized and the armature is released. The armature, connecting rod, and control rod are manually driven into the reactor core.

b.

When the reactor is scrammed, the electromagnet is energized and the armature is released. The armature, connecting rod, and control rod drop by gravitational force into the reactor core.

c.

When the reactor is scrammed, the electromagnet is deenergized and the armature is released. The armature, connecting rod, and control rod drop by gravitational force into the reactor core.

d.

When the reactor is scrammed, the electromagnet is energized and the armature is released. The armature, connecting rod, and control rod are manually driven into the reactor core.

QUESTION C.02

[1.0 point, 0.33 each]

Match the description of power indication on the console in Column A with the nuclear instrumentation in Column B. Options in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A a.

Provides indication from 0 to 120%

power of 10 ranges b.

Provides continuous indication from 10E-8 to 100% power c.

Provides indication from 0 to 120%

power Column B 1.

Log Channel 2.

Percent Channel 3.

Linear Channel QUESTION C.03

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following isotopes would indicate a potential primary to secondary coolant leak in the heat exchanger?

a.

Na-24 b.

I-135 c.

O-19 d.

Ar-41

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.04

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes isolation mode of the facility ventilation system?

a.

The input fan draws air from the loft into the reactor room, which is drawn from the reactor room by an exhaust fan, and either recirculates or goes up the exhaust stack.

b.

The input fan draws air from the loft into the reactor room, which is drawn from the reactor room by an exhaust fan air through a HEPA filter and into the exhaust stack.

c.

The input fan shuts down and the exhaust fan draws reactor room air through a HEPA filter.

d.

The input fan shuts down and the exhaust fan draws reactor room air, to either recirculate or go up the exhaust stack.

QUESTIONaSC.05

[1.0 point]

In accordance with Reed Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following statements regarding facility Radiation Detection is true?

a.

One Air Particulate Monitor (APM) is required during reactor operation, but if it becomes inoperable, it may be substituted with a portable instrument within one hour of discovery for periods not to exceed one month.

b.

One Continuous Air Monitor (CAM) is required during reactor operation, but if it becomes inoperable, it may be substituted with a portable instrument within one hour of discovery for periods not to exceed one month.

c.

One Radiation Area Monitor (RAM) is required during reactor operation, but if it becomes inoperable, it may be substituted with a portable instrument within one hour of discovery for periods not to exceed one month.

d.

One Gaseous Stack Monitor (GSM) is required during reactor operation, but if it becomes inoperable, it may be substituted with a portable instrument within one hour of discovery for periods not to exceed one month.

QUESTION C.06

[1.0 point]

In accordance with Technical Specifications, all of the following statements regarding limitations on experiments are true EXCEPT:

a.

Explosive materials in quantities less than 250 mg TNT equivalent may be irradiated provided the pressure produced upon detonation has been calculated or demonstrated to be less than half of the design pressure of the container.

b.

The absolute value of the reactivity worth of any single unsecured experiment shall be less than $1.00.

c.

The sum of the absolute values of reactivity worths of all experiments shall be less than

$2.00.

d.

Experiments containing corrosive materials shall be doubly encapsulated.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.07

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following options correctly describes how primary coolant temperature is measured?

a.

A thermistor detects changes in pool temperature by using a thermally sensitive resistor that exhibits a continuous, small, incremental change in resistance correlated to variations in temperature.

b.

A semiconductor-based temperature sensor detects changes in pool temperature by utilizing two identical diodes with temperature-sensitive voltage vs current characteristics that are used to monitor changes in temperature.

c.

A thermocouple detects changes in pool temperature by measuring the voltage difference between two wires of dissimilar metals.

d.

A resistance temperature detector detects changes in pool temperature by measuring changes in resistance to the flow of electricity resulting from changes in temperature of the resistive metal element.

QUESTION C.08

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the reason for the high sensitivity of a Geiger-Mueller detector?

a.

The lower voltage applied to the detector helps to amplify all incident events.

b.

Any incident radiation event causing primary ionization results in ionization of the entire detector.

c.

It has a large tube, so the target area is bigger for all incident events.

d.

It is coated with special nuclear material that causes high ionizations at low concentrations.

QUESTION C.09

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the regulating rod drive motor?

a.

The shim arm drive assembly consists of an electromagnetically coupled motor, gear reduction system, and an acme screw type drive.

b.

The shim arm drive assembly consists of a large compression spring with a ball nut and screw jack.

c.

The shim arm drive assembly consists of an electromechanical drive, with a stepper motor, magnetic rod coupler, and rack-and-pinion gear system.

d.

The shim arm drive assembly consists of two 2-phase electric servo motors in parallel driving a lead-screw nut combination.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.10

[1.0 point, 0.25 each]

Using the diagram below, match the identifier in Column A to the component listed in Column B.

Options in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Column A a.

A b.

B c.

C d.

D Column B 1.

Linear Channel 2.

Log-n Channel 3.

Safety Rod 4.

Regulating Rod QUESTION C.11

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes a fuel-moderator element?

a.

UZrH containing 8.5 wt-% uranium enriched to 20 wt-% in U-235. The hydrogen-to-zirconium atom ratio is between 1.5 and 1.65.

b.

UZrH containing 8.5 wt-% uranium enriched to 20 wt-% in U-238. The hydrogen-to-zirconium atom ratio is between 1. and 1.65.

c.

UZrH containing 8.5 wt-% uranium enriched to 20 wt-% in U-235. The hydrogen-to-zirconium atom ratio is 1:1.

d.

UZrH containing 8.5 wt-% uranium enriched to 20 wt-% in U-238. The hydrogen-to-zirconium atom ratio is between 1:1.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.12

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following is the Technical Specification definition of CHANNEL CHECK?

a.

A Channel Check is the introduction of a signal into the channel for verification that it is operable.

b.

A Channel Check is the measured value of a parameter as it appears on the output for a channel.

c.

A Channel Check is an adjustment of the channel such that its output corresponds with acceptable accuracy to known values of the parameter which the channel measures.

d.

A Channel Check is a qualitative verification of acceptable performance by observation of channel behavior, or by comparison of the channel with other independent channels or systems measuring the same parameter.

QUESTION C.13

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following describes the purpose of the diffusor?

a.

The diffusor agitates the water near the top of the core to increase the mean free path to decrease neutron leakage.

b.

The diffusor agitates the water near the top of the core to slow the ascent of water to the top of the pool to allow time for N-16 to decay.

c.

The diffusor agitates the water near the top of the core to slow the ascent of water to the top of the pool to allow time for Ar-41 to decay.

d.

The diffusor agitates the water near the top of the core to increase core cooling between the fuel elements.

QUESTION C.14

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the reason the pneumatic transfer system operates under a pressure differential?

a.

Operating under a pressure differential means the system is always under a negative pressure so any leakage is always into the tubing of the system.

b.

Operating under a pressure differential means the system is always under a negative pressure so any leakage is always into the reactor building exhaust system.

c.

Operating under a pressure differential means the system is always under a positive pressure so any leakage is always into the tubing of the system.

d.

Operating under a pressure differential means the system is always under a positive pressure so any leakage is always into the reactor building exhaust system.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.15

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes how the Log Channel functions?

a.

The Log Channel is a dual fission chamber, with one chamber filled with BF3 gas and the other filled with an inert gas. Neutrons fission with the Boron to produce alpha particles which ionize the gas. Gammas also ionize the fill gases in both chambers. The gamma signal is subtracted from the neutron signal to provide an indication of reactor power over the full range of operation.

b.

The Log Channel is a fission chamber lined with highly enriched U-235. Neutrons interact with the U-235 to produce fission, which ionize the fill gas. Gammas also ionize the fill gas.

At low powers, the circuitry uses a pulse height discriminator to differentiate the neutrons from the gammas to provide an indication of reactor power.

c.

The Log Channel is a fission chamber lined with highly enriched U-238. Neutrons interact with the U-238 to produce fission, which ionize the fill gas. Gammas also ionize the fill gas.

At low powers, the circuitry uses a pulse height discriminator to differentiate the neutrons from the gammas to provide an indication of reactor power.

d.

The Log Channel is a fission chamber lined with B-10. Neutrons fission with the B-10 to produce alpha particles which ionize the gas. Gammas also ionize the fill gas. The combined signal provides an indication of reactor power.

QUESTION C.16

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following materials constitutes the primary coolant system piping?

a.

Aluminum b.

Stainless Steel c.

Carbon Steel d.

PVC QUESTION C.17

[1.0 point]

During normal reactor operation, automatic mode suddenly disengages and the reactor is returned to manual operation. Which ONE of the following could explain why automatic mode disengaged?

a.

The Linear Channel automatically ranged up.

b.

An experiment with $1.00 of reactivity was inadvertently removed from the pneumatic transfer system.

c.

The regulating rod reached its full out position.

d.

The regulating rod was moved more than 10% of full range.

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems QUESTION C.18

[1.0 point]

A gaseous effluent commonly produced from reactor operation is _______ which is _______.

a.

Rn-222; a naturally occurring isotope b.

I-135; produced as a byproduct of fission c.

O-19; produced from irradiation of water d.

Ar-41; produced from irradiation of air QUESTION C.19

[1.0 point]

In accordance with Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following conditions would cause an automatic reactor scram?

a.

Reactor power at 270 kW b.

Reactor period at 3 seconds c.

High radiation alarm on the bridge Radiation Area Monitor d.

Loss of voltage to the percent power channel QUESTION C.20

[1.0 point]

Which ONE of the following best describes the cleanup loop operation?

a.

Approximately 20 gpm of primary coolant is diverted from the outlet of the heat exchanger, through a filter which removes soluble particulate matter, into the mixed-bed demineralizer which removes insoluble impurities from the water.

b.

Approximately 20 gpm of primary coolant is diverted from the outlet of the heat exchanger, through a filter which removes insoluble particulate matter, into the mixed-bed demineralizer which removes soluble impurities from the water.

c.

Approximately 20 gpm of primary coolant is diverted from the outlet of the heat exchanger, through the mixed-bed demineralizer which removes insoluble impurities from the water, into a filter which removes soluble particulate matter.

d.

Approximately 20 gpm of primary coolant is diverted from the outlet of the heat exchanger, through the mixed-bed demineralizer which removes soluble impurities from the water, into a filter which removes insoluble particulate matter.

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

(***** END OF EXAMINATION *****)

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics A.01 Answer:

c.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 3, p. 58 A.02 Answer:

a. 4; b. 2; c. 1; d. 3

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 1, p. 29 A.03 Answer:

b.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Vol 2., p. 16 A.04 Answer:

a.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 1, p. 61 A.05 Answer:

b.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Vol. 1, p. 55 A.06 Answer:

b.

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 3.3.4, p 3-20-21

= (keff2-keff1)/(keff1*keff2)

= (0.950-0.819)/(0.950*0.819)

= 0.168 k/k A.07 Answer:

c.

Reference:

P = P0et/30 4 = 1et/30 ln(4) = ln(et/30) 1.386 = t/30 T = 41.6 seconds A.08 Answer:

a.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Vol. 2, p 15 A.09 Answer:

a. or b. 2 correct answers per facility comments

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 3.3.2, p 3-16 A.10 Answer:

a. 4 (Te-135); b. 1 (I-135); c. 2 (Cs-135); d. 3 (Ba-135)

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 2, p. 35 A.11 Answer:

d.

Reference:

TRIGA theory

Category A: Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics, and Facility Operating Characteristics A.12 Answer:

b.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Vol. 1, p. 29 A.13 Answer:

a. 3 (Fertile); b. 1 (Fissile); c. 2 (Fissionable); d. 1 (Fissile)

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 1, p. 50-52 A.14 Answer:

c.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Volume 2, p. 34 A.15 Answer:

a.

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 7, page 7-4 A.16 Answer:

b.

Reference:

Reactor power keeps increasing because period is positive.

A.17 Answer:

b.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Vol. 1, p. 47 A.18 Answer:

c.

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 3.2.3, p. 3-11 A.19 Answer:

d.

Reference:

Burn, Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, Section 2.7, 2-63 A.20 Answer:

a.

Reference:

LaMarsh, Introduction to Nuclear Engineering, Page 340-341 (1 )= 1 is a prompt critical condition. Rearranging this equation results in

=

1 1

(***** END OF CATEGORY A *****)

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems B.01 Answer:

c.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor Emergency Plan, p. 5 B.02 Answer:

d.

Reference:

SOP 1, Reactor Startup B.03 Answer:

b.

Reference:

EIP E, Earthquake B.04 Answer:

b.

Reference:

10 CFR 55.53, Conditions of Licenses B.05 Answer:

c.

Reference:

RRR Technical Specifications 4.0 (only surveillances that cannot be performed unless the reactor is operating may be performed after restart)

B.06 Answer:

d.

Reference:

DR = DR0, T1 2 =

0.693

DR = DR0 e-.693/T1/2 10 = 35 e-(.693)(4)/T1/2 0.286 = e-(.693)(4)/T1/2 ln(0.286) = ln(e-(.693)(4)/T1/2)

-1.253 = -2.772 / T1/2 T1/2 = -2.772 / -1.253 T1/2 = 2.21 hr B.07 Answer:

b.

Reference:

SOP 35, Fuel and Core B.08 Answer:

d.

Reference:

RRR Emergency Plan, p. 8 B.09 Answer:

d

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1003 B.10 Answer:

b.

Reference:

Dose = DR*T 175 mRem/hr/60 minutes = 2.92 mRem/min 2.92mRem/min

• 7 min = 20.4 mRem

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems B.11 Answer:

d.

Reference:

RRR Emergency Plan, p. 8 B.12 Answer:

d.

Reference:

SOP 35, Fuel and Core B.13 Answer:

c.

Reference:

DR1*(D1)² = DR2*(D2)² 5000 mrem (2)² = 100 mrem (d)² D = 14.14 ft.

B.14 Answer:

a. 4 (Annually); b. 3 (Quarterly); c. 4 (Annually); d. 2 (Monthly)

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor Technical Specifications 4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.5 B.15 Answer:

a.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor Emergency Plan, p. 12 B.16 Answer:

a. or d. 2 correct answers per facility comments

Reference:

SOP 2, Scram or Dropped Rod B.17 Answer:

b.

Reference:

RRR Technical Specifications 3.1.2, 3.1.3, 3.2.1, 3.3 B.18 Answer:

a.

Reference:

10 CFR 20.1301 B.19 Answer:

c.

Reference:

SOP 10, Irradiation Preparation (metallic sodium is reactive with water)

B.20 Answer:

a. 2 (Alert); b. 1 (NOUE); c. 1 (NOUE); d. 2 (Alert)

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor, Emergency Plan, p. 9-10

(***** END OF CATEGORY B *****)

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems C.01 Answer:

c.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 4.2.8 C.02 Answer:

a. 3 (Linear); b. 1 (Log); c. 2 (Percent)

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 7.2.3 C.03 Answer:

a.

Reference:

Standard NRC Question C.04 Answer:

c.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 9.1a C.05 Answer:

c.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor Technical Specifications 3.5 C.06 Answer:

a.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor Technical Specifications 3.6.1, 3.6.2 C.07 Answer:

c.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 5.2 C.08 Answer:

b.

Reference:

NRC Standard question C.09 Answer:

c.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 4.2.8 C.10 Answer:

a. 4 (Reg Rod); b. 1 (Linear); c. 3 (Safety Rod); d. 2 (Log-n)

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor, SOP 35A, Core Diagram C.11 Answer:

a.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 4.2.4 C.12 Answer:

d.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor Technical Specifications Section 1 C.13 Answer:

b.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 5.5

Category C: Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems C.14 Answer:

a.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 10.2.3 C.15 Answer:

b.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 7.2.3.1 C.16 Answer:

a.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 5.2.6 C.17 Answer:

c.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 7.3 and SOP 1 C.18 Answer:

d.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 11.1.1 C.19 Answer:

d.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor Technical Specifications 3.2.3 C.20 Answer:

b.

Reference:

Reed Research Reactor SAR 5.2.4

(***** END OF CATEGORY C *****)

(***** END OF EXAMINATION *****)