ML081370256

From kanterella
Revision as of 16:43, 14 January 2025 by StriderTol (talk | contribs) (StriderTol Bot change)
(diff) ← Older revision | Latest revision (diff) | Newer revision → (diff)
Jump to navigation Jump to search
Feb-Mar 05000259/2008301 Exam Draft RO Written Exam (Part 4 of 4)
ML081370256
Person / Time
Site: Browns Ferry Tennessee Valley Authority icon.png
Issue date: 04/08/2008
From:
NRC/RGN-II
To:
Tennessee Valley Authority
References
50-259/08-301 50-259/08-301
Download: ML081370256 (87)


See also: IR 05000259/2008301

Text

(

3.

3-EOI APPENDIX-IS

Rev.

2

Paqe 2 of 4

(continued from previous page)

b.

IF

Main Condenser is desired drain path,

THEN

OPEN 3-FCV-74-62,

RHR MAIN CNDR FLUSH VALVE.

c.

IF

Radwaste is desired drain path,

THEN

PERFORM the following:

1)

ESTABLISH communications with Radwaste.

2)

OPEN 3-FCV-74-63,

RHR RADWASTE SYS FLUSH VALVE.

d.

NOTIFY personnel in Unit 3 RB,

El 519 ft,

Torus Area

to start RHR Drain Pump 3A(3B) .

e.

THROTTLE 3-FCV-74-10S,

RHR DR PUMP 3A/B DISCH HDR

VALVE, as necessary.

4.

WHEN

Suppression Pool level reaches -5.5 in.,

THEN

SECURE RHR Drain System as follows:

a.

DISPATCH personnel to STOP the Drain System as

follows

(Unit 3 RB,

El 519 ft,

Torus Area) :

1)

STOP RHR Drain Pump 3A(3B).

2)

CLOSE the following valves:

3-SHV-074-0564A(B),

RHR DR PUMP A(B)

SEAL WTR SPLY

3-SHV-074-0529A(B),

RHR DR PUMP A(B)

SHUTOFF VLV .

3)

CLOSE and LOCK 3-SHV-074-0765A(B) ,

RHR DR PUMP

A(B)

DISCH.

b.

CLOSE 3-FCV-74-10S,

RHR DR PUMP 3A/B DISCH HDR

VALVE.

c.

VERIFY CLOSED 3-FCV-74-62,

RHR MAIN CNDR FLUSH

VALVE.

d.

VERIFY CLOSED 3-FCV-74-63,

RHR RADWASTE SYS FLUSH

VALVE.

e.

WHEN ... Suppression Pool level can be maintained

between -1 in.

and -5.5 in.,

THEN ... EXIT this procedure.

(

5.

3-EOI APPENDIX-18

Rev.

2

Pa e

3 of 4

IF ..... Directed by SRO to Emergency Makeup to the

Suppression Pool from Standby Coolant,

THEN ... CONTINUE in this procedure at Step 9.

6.

IF

Directed by SRO to add water to suppression pool,

THEN

MAKEUP water to Suppression Pool as follows:

a.

VERIFY OPEN 3-FCV-73-40,

HPCI

CST SUCTION VALVE.

b.

OPEN 3-FCV-73-30,

HPCI

PUMP MIN FLOW VALVE.

c.

IF ..... HPCI is

NOT available for Suppression Pool

makeup,

THEN ... MAKEUP water to Suppression Pool using RCIC

as follows:

1)

VERIFY OPEN 3-FCV-71-19, RCIC CST SUCTION

VALVE.

2)

OPEN 3-FCV-71-34,

RCIC

PUMP MIN FLOW

VALVE.

d.

IF ..... 3-FCV-71-34,

RCIC

PUMP MIN FLOW VALVE,

CANNOT be opened from control room,

THEN ... DISPATCH personnel to 250V

DC RMOV Board 3B,

Compartment 50, to perform the following:

1)

PLACE 3-XS-071-0034,

RCTC

PUMP MIN FLOW

VALVE EMER TRANS SWITCH, to EMERG.

2)

OPEN 3-FCV-71-34,

RCIC

PUMP MIN FLOW

VALVE.

7 .

WHEN

Suppression Pool level reaches -5.5 in.,

THEN

VERIFY CLOSED the following valves:

3-FCV-73-30,

HPCI

PUMP MIN FLOW VALVE

3-FCV-71-34,

RCIC

PUMP MIN FLOW VALVE.

8.

DISPATCH personnel to 250V DC RMOV Board 3B,

Compartment 50, to VERIFY 3-XS-071-0034,

RCIC

PUMP MIN

FLOW VALVE EMER TRANS SWITCH, in NORMAL.

55. RO 295031G2.4.6 OOl/C/A/TlGl/Cl//295031G2.4.6//RO/SRO/NO

Given the following plant conditions:

Unit 2 was operating at 98% power when an automatic scram occurred due to a Group I

isolation.

All control rods fully insert as reactor water level immediately drops below Level 2.

The Recirc pumps trip.

HPCI automatically initiates but immediately isolates due to a blown inner turbine exhaust

rupture diaphragm.

RCIC had been tagged out of service previously to repair an oil leak.

All other systems are operable.

EOI-1, RPV Control, is entered.

Pressure control was established with SRVs.

The remaining high pressure injection systems are unable to maintain reactor water level which is

currently at -150 inches and lowering.

Which ONE of the following contingency procedures would be appropriate to execute?

A. to!

C1, Alternate Level Control

B.

C2, Emergency RPV Depressurization

C.

C4, RPV Flooding

D.

C5, Level/Power Control

KIA Statement:

295031 Reactor Low Water Level / 2

2.4.6 - Emergency Procedures / Plan Knowledge symptom based EOP mitigation strategies

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine the appropriate Emergency Procedure used to mitigate a low reactor water

level condition.

References:

2-EOI-1, EOIPM Sections O-V-C and O-V-G

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

(

(

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following:

1. Whether the given conditions are indicative of a 1055 of HP injection.

2. Based on Item #1 above , which EOI Contingency is appropriate to mitigate that condition.

A is correct.

B is incorrect. This is plausible since ED will eventually become necessary following the initial actions of

EOI-C1. However, additional actions are required before EOI-C2 is appropriate.

C is incorrect. This is plausible since OW temperature may be high enough following ED to create a

condition where RPV level instruments become unavailable. However, additional actions are required

before EOI-C4 is appropriate.

D is incorrect. This is plausible since the only given condition which contradicts the use of EOI-C5 is the

current rod pattern. However, with all rods inserted, EOI-C5 is not appropriate.

..*-o

III

LU0

0

I

1 £1 1 11

,I

1

ft

! '

eee

"

'

1

1"1

I

Iiii' .

I fiI.11

L iill,1 i

t"-'~~~I

_1'rT

~

I

,I

Sn-w++'ld+1~ 1

rf4

I,,

1

,,,,

I

I

~.1

II

I

I

I

    • !..!.! , . , . 1

I

I

~ Ilffi/f-H+++II

.1

r

lill-lll-l-ll++.++.hlll ~~

I

-i

!

I

I

!

I

r--~

... ,...~

~

~ ;I I

I

I I** ,i

~

if Iii!'

I

~ -. II

i

II

I

II II

I

aU!

I

.

I i

I~ !'i

,. , "i

<9

i

' I

..*-o

III*

N

~o

~..zou

>

L

~

56. RO 295037EK2.l 1 OOl/C/A/TlGI/RMCS//295037EK2.Il//RO/SROINO

A hydraulic ATWS has occurred on Unit 2 and the Unit Operator is inserting control rods in accordance

with the EOI appendices 10, 1F, &2.

(

With these plant conditions...

A. >I all insert blocks are bypassed.

B.

rod drift indication is received as soon as rod motion begins.

C.

stabilizing valves open to provide increased drive pressure.

D.

all RMCS timer functions are bypassed except for the settle bus.

KIA Statement:

295037 SCRAM Condition Present and Power Above APRM Downscale or Unknown 11

EK2.11 - Knowledge of the interrelations between SCRAM CONDITION PRESENT AND REACTOR

POWER ABOVE APRM DOWNSCALE OR UNKNOWN and the following : RMCS : Plant-Specific

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the cand idate to use specific

plant conditions to determine the status of the RMCS while executing procedures to mitigate an ATWS

condition .

References: 2-EOI Appendicies 1D, 1F, and 2

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble ,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its mean ing to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following:

1. What affect the actions performed by EOI Append ix implementation have on the RMCS system.

2. What affect the RMCS manipulations required by implementation of the EOI Appendicis have on plant

indications.

A is correct.

8 is incorrect. This is plausible since a Rod Drift indication will occur for each inserted control rod,

however the indication does not occur until the rod is fully inserted and the CRD NOTCH OVERRIDE

switch is released.

C is incorrect. This is plausible because CRD stabilizing valves DO have an effect on drive water

pressure, but the efffect is to prevent oscilations while moving control rods, NOT increase pressure.

(

D is incorrect. This is plausible since RMCS timers are bypassed by using the CRD NOTCH

OVERRIDE switch in accordance with EOI Appendix 1D. However, the Settle Bus timer is also bypassed.

(

2-EOI APPENDIX-1D

Rev.

6

Page 1 of 3


...

2-EOI APPENDIX-1D

INSERT CONTROL RODS USING REACTOR MANUAL CONTROL

SYSTEM

LOCATION:

Unit 2 Control Room,

Panel 9-5

ATTACHMENTS:

1. Tools and Equipment

2. Core Position Map

NOTE:

This EOI Appendix may be executed concurrently with

EOI Appendix 1A or IB at SRO's discretion when time

and manpower permit.

1.

VERIFY at least one CRD pump in service.

NOTE:

Closing 2-85-586,

CHARGING WATER ISOL, valve may

reduce the effectiveness of EOI Appendix 1A or lB.

2.

IF

Reactor Scram or ARI

CANNOT be reset,

THEN

DISPATCH personnel to close 2-SHV-85-586,

CHARGING WATER SHUTOFF (RB NE, El 565 ft).

3.

VERIFY REACTOR MODE SWITCH in SHUTDOWN.

4.

BYPASS Rod Worth Mi ni mi z e r .

5.

REFER TO Attachment 2 and INSERT control rods in the

area of highest power as follows:

a.

SELECT control rod.

b.

PLACE CRD NOTCH OVERRIDE switch in EMERG ROD IN

position UNTIL control rod is NOT moving inward.

c.

REPEAT Steps 5.a and 5.b for each control rod to be

inserted.

NOTE:

A ladder may be required to perform the following

step.

REFER TO Tools and Equipment, Attachment 1.

IF necessary,

an alternate ladder is available at,

the HCU Modules,

EAST and West banks. It is stored

by the CRD Charging Cart.

6.

WHEN ... NO further control rod movement is possible or

desired,

THEN ... DISPATCH personnel to verify open 2-SHV-85-586,

CHARGING WATER SHUTOFF (RB NE,

El 565 ft).

END OF TEXT

(

2-EOI APPENDIX-IF

Rev.

4

Page I of 7


...

2-EOI APPENDIX-1F

MANUAL SCRAM

LOCATION:

Unit 2 Control Room

ATTACHMENTS:

1. Tools and Equipment

2.

Panel 2-9-15,

Rear

3.

Panel 2-9-17,

Rear

1.

VERIFY Reactor Scram and ARI reset.

a.

IF ...*. ARI

CANNOT be reset,

THEN .*. EXECUTE EOI Appendix 2 concurrently with

Step 1.b of this procedure.

b.

IF

Reactor Scram CANNOT be reset,

THEN

DISPATCH personnel to Unit 2 Auxiliary

Instrument Room to defeat ALL RPS logic

trips as follows:

1)

REFER to Attachment 1 and OBTAIN four 3-ft banana

jack jumpers from EOI Equipment Storage Box.

2)

REFER to Attachment 2 and JUMPER the following

relay terminals in Panel 2-9-15,

Rear:

a)

Relay 5A-K10A

(DQ) Terminal 2 to Relay

5A-K12E

(ED) Terminal 4,

Bay 1.

b)

Relay 5A-K10C

(AT) Terminal 2 to Relay

5A-K12G

(BH) Terminal 4,

Bay 3.

3)

REFER to Attachment 3 and JUMPER the following

relay terminals in Panel 2-9-17,

Rear:

a)

Relay 5A-K10B

(DQ) Terminal 2 to Relay

5A-K12F

(ED) Terminal 4,

Bay 1.

b)

Relay 5A-K10D

(AT) Terminal 2 to Relay

5A-K12H

(BH) Terminal 4,

Bay 3.

2.

WHEN

RPS Logic has been defeated,

THEN

RESET Reactor Scram.

3.

VERIFY OPEN Scram Discharge Volume vent and drain valves.

(

57. RO 295038EKl.Ol OOlIMEMlTlGlINEWI1295038EKl.Ol//RO/SRO/RWM

Given the following plant conditions:

Unit 2 has experienced a LOCA with a loss of Primary Containment.

You have volunteered for a team dispatched from the OSC to enter the Reactor Building and

attempt to energize 20 480v RMOV board.

Due to environmental and radiological conditions present in the Reactor BUilding, Radcon

provides you with a Sodium Chloride and Potassium Iodine tablet during the prejob briefing.

Which ONE of the following describes the benefit of ingesting Potassium Iodine prior to the Reactor

Building entry?

A.

It will reduce the risk of dehydration and heat stress.

B. It will reduce the absorption of radioactive Iodine by the lungs.

C~ It will reduce the absorption of radioactive Iodine by the thyroid.

D.

It will reduce the absorption of radioactive Potassium in the blood stream.

KIA Statement:

295038 High Off-site Release Rate I 9

EK1.01 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to HIGH

OFF-SITE RELEASE RATE : Biological effects of radioisotope ingestion

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to correctly

identify the pathway and adverse effect of iodine ingestion.

Reference: EPIP -14 Revision 18, page 4

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

A is incorrect. The sodium chloride tablets would be used for this purpose. It is plausible if the

candidate is unsure of the purpose of KI tablets.

B is incorrect. Only the thyroid is the organ at risk, but it is plausible if the candidate assumes that

airborne ingestion is limited to absorption by the lungs.

C is correct.

D is incorrect. Iodine is the element that is absorbed. Potassium becomes a plausible answer due to

recent media coverage regarding health risks related to low potassium levels in the blood stream.

(

BROWNS FERRY

RADIOLOGICAL CONTROL PROCEDURES

EPIP-14

3.6

Issuing Potassium Iodide (KI)

3.6.1

If the TSC RP Manager has reason to believe that a person's projected

cumulative dose to the thyroid from inhalation of radioactive iodine might exceed

10 rems (see Appendix A), the exposed person should be started immediately on

a dose regimen of KI. This decision shall be immediately communicated to the

SED.

3.6.1.1

If the TSC is not staffed or the RP Manager position has not been filled,

then the senior onsite RP Supervisor has the authority to issue KI

utilizing the bases described in step 3.6.1.

3.6.1.2 The initial dose of KI should be not delayed since thyroid blockage

requires 30 to 60 minutes. Anyone authorized to initiate KI shall be

familiar with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) patient package

insert and be sure that each recipient is similarly informed .

3.6.1.3 Prior to issuing KI to an individual , the person should be asked if he/she

is allergic to iodine. If the person indicates a possible sensitivity to iodine

they should not be issued KI.

3.6.2

KI is stored in the plant RP supply cage and the REP Van instrument kits.

3.6.3

RP normally will not dispense a container or package of KI to TVA Personnel

involved in activities to support a radiological emergency. RP will however

dispense a single individual dose of KI to team members dispatched from the

OSC.

3.6.4

Follow the dosage outlined on the FDA patient package insert (Appendix B). A

copy of the FDA approved patient package insert shall accompany the issuance

of KI. If KI is distributed in individual doses then verbal instructions of the

significant information on the patient package insert by a knowledgeable

individual is sufficient.

3.6.5

Complete the KI Issue Report (Appendix C) or document on an RWP time sheet

as appropriate for issuance of KI. If the RWP time sheet is used to document

distribution of the KI, note the time of KI distribution on the back of the time

sheet.

PAGE 4 OF 9

REVISION 0018

(

(

58. RO 600000AA1.08 00 l/MEM/Tl GlIRSWl1600000AA 1.081IRO/SRO/I1120107 RMS

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate fire extinguishing agent for the specific class of

fire?

A.

Water used on Class "B" fires.

B."

Low pressure CO2 used on Class "C" fires.

C.

Dry Chemical (PKP) used on Class "c" fires.

D.

Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) used on Class "A" fires.

KIA Statement:

600000 Plant Fire On-site I 8

AA1.08 - Ability to operate and I or monitor the following as they apply to PLANT FIRE ON SITE: Fire

fighting equipment used on each class of fire

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to identify the

correct fire fighting agent for a specific class of fire.

References: TVA Safety Manual

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following :

1. Which flammable material is of concern based on Fire Class A, Band C.

2. Which extinguishing agent is appropriate for each class of fire.

3. Which extinguishing agent is inappropriate for a given class of fire.

A is incorrect. Class "B" fires are flammable liquids. Using water could cause serious damage by

allowing the liquid to splatter and spread.

B is correct.

C is incorrect. Dry chemical agents are extremely corrosive to electrical components and insulation

typical of Class "B" electrical fires .

D is incorrect. AFFF is designed as a flooding and diluting agent for Class "B" flammable liquid fires.

Application on a Class "A" fire is not effective in extinguishing flammable materials such as wood and

paper.

59. RO 295009AK2.01 OOl/C/A/TlG2/PR.INSTRl13/295009AK2.0l/9619/RO/SRO/ll/20/07 RMS

Given the following Unit 1 plant conditions:

Due to multiple high pressure injection system failures, 1-EOI-C1, Alternate Level Control has

been entered.

RHR Pump 1A is running and lined up for LPCI injection.

Core Spray Pumps 1Band 1D are running and lined up for injection.

Drywell Temperature is 240 OF and rising slowly.

Which ONE of the following conditions describes the appropriate point where Emergency

Depressurization may be performed in accordance with 1-EOI-C1, Alternate Level Control?

Post Accident Flooding Range level instrument 3-L1-3-S2 is reading __inches with reactor pressure at

___psig.

REFERENCES PROVIDED

KIA Statement:

29S009 Low Reactor Water Level I 2

AK2.01 - Knowledge of the interrelations between LOW REACTOR WATER LEVEL and the following:

Reactor water level indication

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine actual reactor water level under conditions of low reactor water level.

References:

1-EOI-C1 Flowchart, PIP-9S-64 Rev 12

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: 1-EOI-C1 Flowchart, PIP-95-64 Rev 12.

Plausibility Analysis:

(

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following:

1. Recognize the requirement that RPV level must be less than -162 inches before Emergency

Depressurization is appropriate.

2. Recognize that the indicated RPV level must be corrected for pressure using PIP-95-64.

3. Recognize that two or more injection systems must be lined up with pumps running to meet the

requirement to Emergency Depressurize.

4. Recognize that only one RHR pump is required to qualify as an injection subsystem since each RHR

pump is rated for 100% capacity.

NOTE: Each distractor is plausible because the conditions specified are possible given the current plant

conditions.

A is correct.

B is incorrect. Level is 5 inches too high or pressure is 100 psig too high.

C is incorrect. Level is -4 inches too high or pressure is 240 psig too high.

D is incorrect. Level is -4 inches too high or pressure is 100 psig too high.

(

-150"

TAF

-162"

-175"

....J

W>

W

-200"

....J

0

W....-co

-225

0

Z

-250"

-268"

3-LI-3-52 & 62 CORRECTION CURVES

-

-162" =TAF (RED LINE)

-185" =MSCRWL (GREEN LINE)

-200" =MZIRWL (BLUE LINE)

-215" =TWO-THIRDS CORE HEIGHT (BLACK UNE)

1\\

r-.

~

l-o

1;0""

r\\

....

t lJ

r-.

~i'"

~~

I'

"

"" ~

~

I"

t-

!}; ~

~

~ ~

II

1"-

""""

"" ~ t- ~

~

~

""'to-

~

.......

.J

......

o

100

200

300

400

500

600

700

800

900 1000 1100

REACTOR PRESSURE (PSIG)

ACTUAL

LEVEL

-162"

-185"

-200"

-215"

PIP-95-64

REV. 12

OPL171.003

Revision 17

Page 22 of 54

INSTRUCTOR NOTES

Since no trips or alarms are

associated with this range, this

level signal is not directed

through the Analog Trip System.

(d)

One MCR indicator on Panel 9-3

monitors this range of level

indication .

(4)

Post-accident Flood Range

(a)

-268" to +32" range covering

active core area and overlapping

the lower portion of the Normal

Control Range .

(b)

Referenced to instrument zero

(c)

Intended for use only under

accident conditions with reactor

at 0 psig and recirculation pumps

tripped.

(d)

Variable leg tap is from diffuser of

jet pumps 1 and 6 (or 11 and 16).

(e)

Per Safety Analysis on water

level instruments the conclusion

Injecting with RHR

is that the accident range

L1-3-52 and 62

instruments adequately indicate

(Accident Range)

water level--provided they are

Technical Support

corrected for off-calibration

letter dated 9/13/95

conditions of RPV pressure

(See LP Folder)

utilizing the operator aid on Panel

Use Conservative

9-3 for level correction.

Decision Making

Obj. V.8.15.

(f)

An interlock associated with this

Obj. V.8 .11.

range will prevent using the RHR

System for containment de

pressurization when it is needed

to flood the core region .

(g)

The -68" to -168" portion of this

range is recorded in the MCR on

Unit 3 Recorder

2-L1-3-62 Recorder and two

displays a scale of

indicators monitor the full range

+32" to -268"

of these instruments.

E

MINATION

REFERENCE

(PROVIDED TO

CANDIDATE

,

~ I~ ~~i! § !i ~ :i

t liP:I

if

!!!I

,.. ."

III..

U l

,

I;

h

!I

.

II

.

I

t

l

I'

1,1 !

oJ

f

u

u

I

! I I

b

~ i i

f

E

I I

i

III..

'P*u*

~

...o

ar=...zou...II>

III..

III=

Z

ar=

III......

ce

~ 'jl!

11J

I

If.

I

til I

..

I;!

i '

I

. I

I

e 'II II

i

~

fi

"'I I

I

i

~I!tl

I

~ I

, ;iii!

~

.I. ."

~

'"

.

I

I II

!

I

El

l

~~ t

E

R I

~

i liB

I

lid

  • i

i!!

. 1111

'P

i

11 !Ii!Ii

1

  • U

(

-150"

TAF

-162"

-175"

....Jw>w

-200"

....J

0

W

'-<<o

-225

0

Z

-250"

-268"

3-LI-3-52 & 62 CORRECTION CURVES

-

-162" =TAF (RED LINE )

-185" =MSCRWL (GREEN LINE)

-200" =MZIRWL (BLUE LINE)

-215" =TWO-THIRDS CORE HEIGHT (BLACK LINE)

,

~

....

,

~

..

i'o

I"- ....

..

" 1-0

\\.

'I"-

~

"

-1-0 -

r"I

i" .... ,

J

~..

"""

i" ..

~

""

J

""

ACTUAL

LEVEL

-162"

-185"

-200"

-215"

I

o

100

200

300

400

500 600

700

800

900 1000 1100

REACTOR PRESSURE (PSIG)

PIP-95-64

REV. 12

60. RO 295012G2.2.22 00 l/C/A/Tl G2/64/12/2950 12G2.2.22/IRO/SRO/0606S NEW6/28/2007

Given the following plant conditions:

You are the oncoming Unit 3 Unit Supervisor.

During turnover the onshift Unit Supervisor informs you that 2 Drywell Coolers had been

secured during his shift while performing ground isolation on 3C 480v RMOV board.

Drywell Average Temperature is 152°F and stable.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate condition and required action?

A'! Exceeded 3-SR-2, Instrument Checks and Observations, Drywell temperature limit. Address Tech Spec section 3.6.

B. Exceeded the normal operating Drywell temperature limit. Drywell temperature must be logged

hourly until below the limit.

C. Exceeded the normal operating Drywell temperature limit. Restore Drywell average air temperature

below the limit in 24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />.

D.

Exceeded 3-EOI-2, Primary Containment Control entry condition. Enter and execute 3-EOI-2,

Primary Containment Control.

KIA Statement:

295012 High Drywell Temperature 15

2.2.22 - Equipment Control Knowledge of limiting conditions for operations and safety limits

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine that Technical Specification limits have been exceeded.

References:

Unit 3 Tech Specs Section 3.6.1.4

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: 1-EOI-C1 Flowchart, PIP-95-64 Rev 12.

Plausibility Analysis:

(

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following:

1. The appropriate entry condition for U3 Tech Spec Section 3.6.1.4.

2. The appropriate entry condition for 3-EOI-2, Primary Containment Control.

3. The appropriate action based on the given condition.

A is correct.

B is incorrect. This is plausible because the Tech Spec Iimt was exceeded, however the required action

is to restore the Orywell Temperature within the limit in 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />. There is no requirement for hourly logging

of OW temperature.

C is incorrect. This is plausible because the Tech Spec limt was exceeded, however the required action

is to restore the Orywell Temperature within the limit in 8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />. The 24 hour2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br /> limit is based on performing

the surveillance on Orywell Temperature.

o is incorrect. This is plausible because the entry condition for 3-EOI-2 is only 8 of above the given

temperature. However, the entry condition has not been met and OW temperature was reported as

"stable".

Drywell Air Temperature

3.6.1.4

3.6

CONTAINMENT SYSTEMS

3.6.1.4

Drywell Air Temperature

LCO 3.6.1.4

Drywell average air temperature shall be s 150°F.

APPLICABILITY:

MODES 1, 2, and 3.

ACTIONS

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION

TIME

A. Drywell average air

A.1

Restore drywell average

8 hours9.259259e-5 days <br />0.00222 hours <br />1.322751e-5 weeks <br />3.044e-6 months <br />

temperature not within

air temperature to within

limit.

limit.

B. Required Action and

B.1

Be in MODE 3.

12 hours1.388889e-4 days <br />0.00333 hours <br />1.984127e-5 weeks <br />4.566e-6 months <br />

associated Completion

Time not met.

AND

B.2

Be in MODE 4.

36 hours4.166667e-4 days <br />0.01 hours <br />5.952381e-5 weeks <br />1.3698e-5 months <br />

BFN-UNIT 3

3.6-17

Amendment No. 212

(

SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS

SURVEILLANCE

Drywell Air Temperature

3.6.1.4

FREQUENCY

(

SR 3.6.1.4.1

BFN-UNIT 3

Verify drywell average air temperature is

within limit.

3.6-18

24 hours2.777778e-4 days <br />0.00667 hours <br />3.968254e-5 weeks <br />9.132e-6 months <br />

Amendment No. 212

(

61. RO 295015AKl.02 OOlIMEMlTlG2IBASISI1295015AKl.02///lll21107 RMS

EOI-1 flowchart path RC/Q directs the operator to inhibit the ADS auto blowdown function once Standby

Liquid Control injection has begun.

Which ONE of the following describes why ADS is inhibited under these conditions?

A.

ADS actuation would impose a severe pressure and temperature transient on the reactor vessel.

B.

The operator can control pressure better than an automatic system like ADS.

C. otI Severe core damage from a large power excursion could result, if low pressure systems

automatically injected on depressurization.

D.

If only steam driven high pressure injection systems are available an ADS actuation could lead to a

loss of adequate core cooling.

KIA Statement:

295015 Incomplete SCRAM I 1

AK1.02 - Knowledge of the operational implications of the following concepts as they apply to

INCOMPLETE SCRAM : (CFR 41.8 to 41.10) Cooldown effects on reactor power

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine the effect of a significant cooldown when an incomplete scram has

occurred.

References:

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the follow ing:

1. The basis for inhibiting ADS under the specific conditions of boron injection.

NOTE: Each of the three distractors are plausible based on their relationsh ip to the bases for inhibiting

ADS under circumstances OTHER than boron injection. Specifically, Alternate RPV Level Control

actions. Refer to the attached excerpt from EOIPM Section O-V-G.

A is incorrect. This applies whenever ADS actuates , but is only the precursor to the issue related to

boron injection.

B is incorrect. This statement is true, but is not addressed in the basis for boron injection.

C is correct.

D is incorrect. This statement applies particularly to a low RPV level condition.

I

(

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION O-V-C

STEP:

RC/Q-14 and RC/Q-15

EOI-1, RPV CONTROL BASES

EJlECUlE RC/Q- , 2 "",0 RC/Q-22 CONCVRRENllY

Re/Q-'1

BORON INJ IS REQUIRED

(£01- I. RC/P-8)

L

Re/Q-13

'---

-r-e-


' L

Rc/Q-14

INHlBIl NlS

RC/Q-15

L-

---,

-.JL

VERIFY RWCU SYSTEI.I ISOLATION

L

RC/Q-1S

WHILE EXECUTING THE FOLLOWING STEPS:

Ii:!lli

SLC tNlK LVl DROPS TO c....3>.

tRIP THE SLC PUMPS

RC/Q-I7

~~-__-

...-----... L

034

SECTION o-v-c

PAGE 116 OF 127

REVISION 1

EOI-1, RPV CONTROL BASES

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTiON o-v-c

RC/Q-14 and RC/Q-15

STEP

DISCUSSION:

  • 1

1

The RC/Q-14 action step directs the operator to manually initiate the SLC System. Because this step is prioritized

with the miniature before decision step RClQ-12 symbol, this action should be performed before suppression pool

temperature reaches <A.64>, Boron Injection Initiation Temperature. EOI Appendix 3A provides step-by-step

guidance for manual initiation of the SLC System. Boron in solution absorbs neutrons, providing negative

reactivity to achieve reactor subcriticality, since the reactor is not yet subcritical on control rod insertion alone.

The RC/Q-15 action step directs the operator to defeat automatic ADS function by placing the ADS inhibit

switches in the inhibit position. Because this step is prioritized with the miniature before decision step RC/Q-12

symbol, this action should be performed before suppression pool temperature reaches.<A.64>, Boron Injection

Initiation Temperature.

ADS initiation may result in the injection of large amounts ofrelatively cold, unborated water from low pressure

injection systems. With the reactor still critical or subcritica1on boron, the positive reactivity addition due to boron

dilution and temperature reduction from injection of cold water may result in a reactor power excursion large

enough to cause substantial core damage. Defeating ADS is, therefore, appropriate whenever boron injection is

required. If emergency depressurization of the RPV is subsequently required, explicit direction is provided in the

appropriate EOL Therefore, the ability to maintain automatic initiation capability of ADS is not required.

( *

REVISION 1

PAGE 117 OF 127

SECTION O-V-C

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION O-V-G

STEP: Cl-l

C1, ALTERNATE LEVEL CONTROL BASES

.

IfOl-l

RPv CbNTROL

1

RC/L-12

~~>::;~;F(./'~~;:* *~'CAut(O~- : *

,.

...

.

.,." fH::

~ #1

AMBiENT TEMP MAY AffECT RPv WATER LVl

t:

INDICATION AND TREND

i

. ," '

' ~

. ,....., ~ "..

.-. "

....'.

"; '

.' ~' .

~

L

I

INHIBIT ADS

I L

Cl **1

WHILE EXECUTING THIS PROCEDURE:

lE

.I1::f.£.N

-.. ' .-

-

ALL CONTROL RODS ARE l\\lOI

ExIT THIS PROCE~RE AND

INSERTED TOPc¥: BFYOND

ENTER C5. LEVEL POWER CONTROL

POSITION <A. 0>,

RPV WATfR L~ CMINQI

[XIT THIS PROCEDURf AND

BE DETERMINE ,

ENTER C4, RPV flOODING

RPV WATER LV!. IS RISING.

EXITTHIS PROCEDURE AND

LNT£R £01-1, RPV CONTROL,

AT STEP RC/L-l

CI-2

L

SECTION O-V-G

PAGE 8 OF 50

REVISION 0

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

.

SECTION O-V-G .

DISCUSSION: STEP Cl-l

cr, ALTERNATE LEVEL CONTROL BASES

1

1

Thisactionstep directsthe operatorto defeatautomatic ADS function. An ADSactuationwith

the RPVat pressureimposesa severethermaltransientonthe RPVand may significantly

complicate effortsto restoreand maintainRPVwaterlevelas specifiedin this procedure.

.

Because ADSinitiationlogicreceiveslimitedinputsignals,a varietyofplant conditions mayexist

whereautomatic depressurization of the RPV is not appropriate. In certain cases (e.g., RCIC

available but LPCI/CSinjectionvalvesclosedandcontrolpowerfor their operationnot available)

ADSactuation may directly leadto loss of adequate corecoolingand core damage, conditions

thatmightotherwisehave been avoided. Further,conditions assumedin the designof ADS

actuation logic (e.g., no operatoractionforten minutes) do not exist when actionsspecifiedin

thisprocedure are being carriedout.

.

Finally, an operatorcan draw on muchmoreplantinformation than is availableto ADSlogic

(e.g., equipmentout ofservicefor maintenance, operating experiencewith certainsystems,

probability of restorationofoffsitepower,etc.)andthus can betterjudge, based on logicspecified

inthisprocedure, when and how to depressurize the RPV. For all ofthese reasons,it is

appropriate to preventautomaticinitiationofADSas specified.

REVISION 0

PAGE 9 OF 50

SECTION O-V-G

62. RO 295020AK3.08 OOl/MEMlEOI/BASIS//295020AK3.08///l1/21/07 RMS

Unit-2 was at 100% rated power when a spurious Group I isolation occurred. The pressure transient

caused a small LOCA to occur inside the drywell.

EOI-2, section PC/P requires certain actions before and after reaching 12 psig Suppression Chamber

pressure.

Which of the following is the reason that 12 psig in the Suppression Chamber was selected?

A.

Drywell sprays must be initiated prior to this pressure to prevent opening the Suppression Chamber

to Reactor Building vacuum breakers and de-inerting the containment.

B.

Above this pressure indicates that almost all of the nitrogen and other non-condensible gases in the

drywell have been transferred to the torus so initiating Drywell Sprays will not result in containment

failure.

C.oI Above this pressure indicates that almost all of the nitrogen and other non-condensible gases in the

drywell have been transferred to the torus and chugging is possible .

D.

Above this pressure indicates that almost all of the nitrogen and other non-condensible gases in the

torus have been transferred to the drywell air space and Suppression Chamber Sprays will be

ineffective.

KIA Statement:

295020 Inadvertent Cont. Isolation I 5 & 7

AK3.08 - Knowledge of the reasons for the following responses as they apply to INADVERTENT

CONTAINMENT ISOLATION: Suppression chamber pressure response

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine the effect on Suppression Chamber pressure due to an inadvertent

containment isolation and the basis for that response .

References: EOIPM Section O-V-D

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

j

Plausibility Analysis:

(

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following :

1. The basis for the Pressure Supression Pressure Limit of 12 psig Suppression Chamber pressure.

A is incorrect. This is plausible because initiation of OW sprays at high SC pressure could reduce

pressure low enough to open the SC to RB vacuum breakers. However, this is part of the bases for the

Orywell Spray Initiation Pressure Limit Curve #5.

B is incorrect. This is plausible because initiating SC sprays with high temperature non-condensible

gases in the SC will result in evaporative cooling and a rapid pressure drop. However, the SC to OW

vacuum relief system is capable of compensating for this pressure drop. This is also part of the bases for

the Orywell Spray Initiation Pressure Limit Curve #5.

C is correct.

D is incorrect. This is plausible if the LOCA occurred inside the Suppression Chamber and NOT the

Orywell as given in the stem.

(

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION O-V-O

STEP:

PC/P-6

.

NO L

YES

L

o

INITIATE

SUPPR CHMBR SPRAYS USII\\C w..x RHR PUMPS WI

REQI)RED TO ASSURE ADEOUA.TE CORE COOLING BY" COO11NlJ()J$

IN! (N)PX 17C)

PC/P-5

EOI-2, PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL BASES

L

SUPPR CHI.4BR PRESS EXCEEDS <A.65>

CONTINUE

IN THIS PROCEDURE

PC/P-6

L

i(

SECTION O-V-O

TO CURVE 5

(Refer to EOI Program "'onuot "-

Section IV, Appendi. A. Curves

and Tables Used in the EOls)

PAGE 42 OF 244

NO L

NO L

TO PC/P-ll

REVISION 0 *

EOI-2. PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL BASES

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION o-v-n

DISCUSSION: STEP PCIP-6

1

1

This contingent action step requires the operator to wait until the stated condition has been met

before continuing in EOI-2. Performance ofsubsequent actions in this section ofEOI-2 will not

be performed until suppression chamberpressure exceeds Suppression Chamber Spray Initiation

Pressure.

Engineering calculations have determined that ifsuppression chamber pressure exceeds <A.65>,

Suppression Chamber Spray Initiation Pressure, there is no assurance that chugging will be

prevented at downcomer openings ofthe drywell vents. This value is rounded-off in the EOI to

use the closest, most conservative value that can be accurately determined on available

instrumentation.

Suppression Chamber Spray Initiation Pressure is defined to be the lowest suppression chamber

pressure that can occur when 95% ofnoncondensables in the drywell have been transferred to

airspace ofthe suppression chamber. Scale model tests have demonstrated that chugging will not

occur so long as the drywell atmosphere contains at least 1% noncondensables. To prevent the

occurrence ofconditions under which chugging may happen, Suppression Chamber Spray

Initiation Pressure is conservatively defined by specifying 5% noncondensables.

Chugging is the cyclic condensation ofsteam at downcomer openings ofthe drywell vents.

Chugging occurs when steam bubbles collapse at the exit ofdowncomers. The rush ofwater that

fills the void (some ofwhich is drawn up into the downcomer pipe) induces a severe stress at the

junction ofthe downcomer and vent header. Repeated application ofthis stress can cause these

joints to experience fatigue failure (cracks), thereby creating a pathway that bypasses the pressure

suppression function ofprimary containment. Subsequent steam that discharges through

downcomers would then exit through the fatigued cracks, and directly pressurize suppression

chamber air space, rather than discharging to and condensing in the suppression pool.

Although operation ofsuppression chamber sprays by itselfwill not prevent chugging, the

requirement to wait to initiate drywell sprays until reaching Suppression Chamber Spray Initiation

Pressure assures that suppression chamber spray operation is attempted before operation of

drywell sprays. Therefore, actions to initiate drywell sprays need to be directed only ifsuppression

chamber sprays were unable to reduce primary containment pressure or they could not be

initiated.

REVISION 0

PAGE 43 OF 244

SECTION O-V-O

EOI-2, PRIMARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL BASES

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION O-V-O

DISCUSSION:

STEP PCIP-8

I

~

Thisdecision stephas the operatorevaluatethe presentstatusofdrywellpressureand drywell

temperature to determineif conditionsare favorable fordrywellsprayoperation.

Drywell sprayoperationreducesdrywellpressureandtemperature through the combinedeffects

of evaporative and convectivecooling.Duringevaporative cooling,water spray undergoesa

changeof state,liquid to vapor,whereasconvective coolinginvolvesno changeofstate.

Evaporative coolingoccurs when wateris sprayedinto a superheatedatmosphere.Waterat the

surfaceof eachdroplet is heated and flashesto steam,absorbingheat energy fromthe drywell

atmosphere until the atmospherereachessaturated conditions. In the drywell,with a typical

drywell sprayflowrate, the evaporativecoolingprocessresults in an immediate,rapid, large

reduction in pressure. This pressurereductionoccursat a rate much faster than can be

compensated for by the primarycontainment vacuumreliefsystem.Unrestrictedoperationof

drywell sprayscouldcause an excessivenegativedifferential pressureto occurbetweenthe

drywell andsuppressionchamber,largeenoughto causea lossofprimarycontainmentintegrity.

Convective coolingoccurs when water is sprayedinto a saturatedatmosphere. Sprayedwater

droplets absorbheat from the surrounding atmosphere throughconvectiveheat transfer(sensible

heatfromthe atmosphereis transferredto the waterdroplets). This effect reducesdrywell

ambienttemperature andpressureuntilequilibrium conditionsare established.Theconvective

coolingprocessoccurs at a rate much slowerthan the evaporative cooling process. An operator

caneffectively controlthe magnitudeofa containment temperature/pressure reductionfrom

convective coolingby terminatingoperationof drywellsprays.

Considering the pressuredrop concernsdescribed above,engineeringcalculationshave

determined that primarycontainmentintegrityis assuredwhendrywellsprays areoperatedin the

safeareaofDrywell SprayInitiationLimit Curve(Curve5).DrywellSprayInitiationLimit is

defined to bethe highestdrywelltemperature at whichinitiationofdrywellsprayswill not result

in an evaporative cooling pressuredropto beloweither:1)drywell-below-suppression chamber

differential pressurecapability,or 2) high drywell pressurescramsetpoint,

If drywell temperature and pressureare withinthe safe areaofCurve 5, the operatorcontinuesat

StepPCIP-9.

Ifdrywell temperature and pressureare not withinthe safeareaofCurve 5, then drywell spray

operation is not permitted, and the operatoris directed to Step PCIP-l1.

REVISION 0

PAGE 47 OF 244

SECTION O-V-D

c'

63 . RO 295032EAl.OI OOl/C/A/TlGI/E0I-3//295032EAl.Ol//RO/SR0/1l/20/07 RMS

Given the follow ing plant conditions:

Unit 2 experienced a MSL break from full power.

Both inboard and outboard MSIVs on the "B" steam line fail to isolate however, the reactor

scrams and all rods insert.

Steam Leak Detection panel 9-21 indications are as follows :

- 2-TI-1-60A

- 2-TI-1-60B

- 2-TI-1-60C

- 2-TI-1-60D

320°F

323°F

33rF

318°F

(

No other temperature indications are alarming at this time.

Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate operator actions and the reasons for those

actions?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

A.

Emergency depressurize the reactor due to two EOI-3 areas being above Max Safe.

B.

Rapidly depressurize the reactor due to one EOI-3 areas above Max Safe and one area

approaching Max Safe.

c.'; Enter 2-EOI-1, RPV Control and initiate a Reactor Scram due to one EOI-3 area being above Max

Safe.

D.

Enter 2-GOI-100-12A, Unit Shutdown and commence a normal shutdown and cooldown due to a

primary system dscharging outside Primary Containment.

KIA Statement:

295032 High Secondary Containment Area Temperature / 5

EA1.01 - Ability to operate and/or monitor the follow ing as they apply to HIGH SECONDARY

CONTAINMENT AREA TEMPERATURE : Area temperature monitoring system

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KiA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine the required actions which result from high secondary containment

temperatures as indicated by Area Temperature Monitoring instrumentation.

References:

2-EOI-3 Flowchart, EOIPM Section O-V-E

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

(

(

REFERENCE PROVIDED: 2-EOI-3 Flowchart

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following :

1. Which area(s) are above or approaching Max Safe

2. Based on Item #1 above, determine the appropriate action and the basis for that action.

A is incorrect. This is plausible because all four temperatures provided are greater than 3150F as

indicated on Table 3. However, only one indicator applies to an EOI 3 area, therefore only ONE area is

above Max Safe.

B is incorrect. This is plausible because one area is above Max Safe and given conditions indicate an

un-isolable leak exists which implies conditions are degrading. However, with no other temerature

indications in alarm, anticipating the requirement to Emergency Depressurize is NOT ppropriate.

C is correct.

D is incorrect. This is plausible because all four temperatures provided are greater than 3150F as

indicated on Table 3. However, only one indicator applies to an EOI 3 area, therefore only ONE area is

above Max Safe. In addition, this step is only addressed if Emergency Depressurization will not reduce the

discharge into Secondary Containment. In this case, it would.

EOI-3, SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL BASES

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION O-V-E

ENTRY CONDITIONS:

EOI-3

DISCUSSION:

  • ~--

I

Entry conditions for this procedure are symptomatic ofconditions which, if not corrected, could degrade into an

emergency. Adverse affects on equipment operability and conditions that directly challenge secondary containment

integrity were specifically considered in the selection ofthese entry conditions. Following is a description of each

entry condition:

Area temperature above the maximum normal operating value of Table 3

A secondary containment area temperature above the maximum normal operating value of Table 3, Secondary

Containment Area Temperature, is an indication that steam from a primary system may be discharging into

secondary containment. As temperatures continue to increase, continued operability ofequipment needed to carry

out EOI actions may be compromised. High area temperatures also present a danger to personnel since access to

secondary containment may be required by actions specified by EOls.

Maximum normal operating temperature is defined to be the highest value ofa secondary containment area

temperature expected to occur during normal plant operating conditions with all directly associated support and

control systems functioning properly.

Differential pressure at or above <A.38> inches of water

High secondary containment differential pressure is indicative ofa potential loss of secondary containment

structural integrity, and could result in uncontrolled release of radioactivity to the environment.

Reactor Zone Ventilation exhaust radiation level above <A.39>

High Reactor Zone Ventilation exhaust radiation levels may indicate that radioactivity is being released to the

environment when the system should have automatically isolated.

Refuel Zone Ventilation exhaust radiation level above <A.40>

High Refuel Zone Ventilation exhaust radiation levels may indicate radioactivity is being released to the

environment when the system should have automatically isolated.

Floor drain sump water levcl above <A.41>

A secondary containment floor drain sump water level above maximum normal operating level is an indication that

steam or water may be discharging into secondary containment.

Maximum normal operating floor drain sump water level is defined to be the highest value of secondary

containment floor drain sump water level expected to occur during normal plant operating conditions with all

directly associated support and control systems functioning properly.

Area watcr level above <A.42>

Secondary containment area water level above maximum normal operating level is an indication that steam or water

may be discharging into secondary containment.

Maximum normal operating secondary containment area water level is defined to be the highest value of secondary

containment area water level expected to occur during normal plant operating conditions with all directly associated

support and control systems functioning properly.

REVISION 1

PAGE 9 OF 73

SECTION O-V-E

.... .... ..

...._._ - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - _ ....

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION O-V-E

scrr-6

and

SCrr-7

DISCUSSION:

EOI-3, SECONDARY CONTAINMENT CONTROL BASES

el

1

(

Step SCrr-6 is a before decision step that has the operator evaluate current and future efforts to lower secondary

containment area temperatures, in relation to the current value and trend ofsecondary containment area

temperatures, to determine if a reactor scram is necessary. The before decision step requires that this determination

and subsequent actions be performed before any secondary containment area temperature reaches its respective

maximum safe operating temperature value provided in Table 3.

Maximum safe operating temperature is defined to be the highest temperature at which neither: I) equipment

necessary for the safe shutdown of the plant will fail, nor 2) personnel access necessary for safe shutdown ofthe

plant will be prevented. The maximum safe operating temperature value for all secondary containment areas is

provided in Table 3, Secondary Containment Area Temperature.

This step is reached only when additional actions have been required to reverse an increasing secondary

containment area temperature trend. If all secondary containment area temperatures can be maintained below their

respective maximum safe operating values, the operator returns to Step SCrr*I . Ifit is determined that all

secondary containment area temperatures cannot be maintained below their respective maximum safe operating

values, the operator continues at Step scrr-7.

Step SCrr-7 is an enter and execute concurrently step that requires the operator to enter

EOI-I, RPV Control, at Step RC-I , and to perform the actions concurrently with this procedure. Because this step

is prioritized with the miniature before decision step symbol relating to SCrr-6, this action should be performed

before any secondary containment area temperature reaches its respective maximum safe operating value.

Initiation of reactor scram (Step RC-I) before any secondary containment area temperature reaches its respective

maximum safe operating value may halt the increase in secondary containment area temperature(s), since the RPV

is the only significant source of heat, other than a fire, that could cause secondary containment area temperatures to

exceed their respective maximum safe operating values.

REVISION 1

PAGE 27 OF 73

SECTION O-V-E

TABLE 3

SECONDARY CNTMT AREA TEMP

PANEL~

PANEL9-21

MAX

MAX

POTENTi6,L

AREA

AlARM WINDOW

TEMPEleMENT

NORMA\\.

SI.,FE

ISOlATION

(UNLESS NOTED)

(UNLESSNOTED)

VALUEof

VALUEof

SOURCES

RHRSYS I PUMPS

XA-6!>-36-4

74-95.1.,

A\\..I.,RMED

160

FCV-7447,48

RHRSYS II PUMPS

X6,-65-3E-4

74-958

ALARMED

210

FC\\L1441,48

HPCI ROQM

X"I-65-3F-l0

73-65.1.,

ALI.,RMED

270

FCV-73-2, 3,44, 81

CSSVS I PUMPS

XA-.55-30-10

11-41A

ALARMED

190

FCV-1'-2, 3. 39

RCICRooM

CSSYSIlPUMPS

X4-.55-3E-29

7lH>9B (pANEL~)

ALARMED

150

NONE

X6,-.55-3D-10

71041S,C, D

AlARMED

200

FC\\L1'-2,3

TO? OFTORUS

X6,-55-3F-10

73-55B.C,D

Al.6,RMED

240

FCV-13-2, 3, 81

XA-65-3E-4

74-9SG, H

AlARMED

240

FCV-1404i.48

STEAMTUNNEL(RB)

XA-.5!:--3D-24

1-00.4 (PANEL9-3)

Al.A,RMED

315

MSIVa

FCV-71-2, 3, FCV-'S9-1, 2, 12

QWACCESS

X4-55-3E-4

74-95E

Al.6,RMED

170

FC\\L74047.48

R8 EL565W

X4-55-.5B-32 (PANEL9-5)

69-S3SA.B,C.D

ALARMED

170

FCV~-l, 2, 12

(RWCUPIPETRENCH)

XI.,-.55-.5B-33 (PANEL9-5)

{AUXINST ROOM}

ALARMED

RWCUH. X. ROOM

X4-5'".>-3D-t1

G9-29F,G, H

AL4.RMED

220

FCV~-1. 2, 12

RWCUPUMPA

X4.-.55-3D-17

G9-29D

ALARMED

215

FCV-&.:!-1.2. 12

~"'CUPUMP8

XA-55-3D-17

G9-29E

ALARMED

215

FCV.(;'9-1, 2.12

RBE L593

X4-.55-3E-4

74-95C,D

Al.6,RMED

195

FCV-14047,48

RBEL621

XI.,-.55-3E-4

74-95F

ALl.,RMED

155

FCV-43-13, 14

/"""'\\

...J

.J

...J

I:l

...J

!

l! ~

I~

..

~ i

~

~~

lZ ~

i '

....

S~

.. ~Ii

SIC.

all

.. Il.! I

U

~~

I:

)o\\!.l.

~ ~ !

JI

m

~I

~

..

i

~'"

L

...

WHILE EXECUTING THE FOLLOWING STEPS:

IF

THEN

EMERGENCY RPV DEPRESSURIZATION

IS ANTICIPATED

AND

RAPIDLY DEPRESSURIZE THE RPV

WITH THE MAIN TURB BYPASS VLVs

THE REACTOR WILL REMAIN SUBCRITICA,L

IRRESPECTIVE OF COOLDOWN RATE

WITHOUT BORON UNDER ALL CONDITIONS

(SEE NOTE)

RCIP-3

)--

E

MINATION *

REFERENCE

PROVIDED TO

( CANDIDATE

il"u

hl~

3

i

!I

=I

J

j.

~

C")*-ow

(If)*-fa

1 ,L.a~.....,..,..

il'

W-l-\\++-t+tT1

~I

SIU':"'H.++-t+t

lill * .. " ! i

i

I H II '

[n '*11

1' . .

lit!II!! !l

II

.!Ii!

. i :1*

.

illili II

!

iit

11 I I

I

it

I I~ I il ill Ii I

fl .

1 I

I

I I

II: I .

111"1

  • I 'II

II I,,,

t

LI

C")*-ow

64. RO 295033EA2.01 OOl/C/A/TlG2/SC/R//295033EA2.0l//RO/SR0/1l/20/07 RMS

Given the following plant conditions:

Unit-2 is at 100% rated power.

A RWCU drain line cracked and is spilling into the Reactor Building .

Area Radiation Monitors in the Reactor Building read as follows:

Reactor Building Elevation 593

Reactor Building Elevation 565 West

Reactor Building Elevation 565 East

Reactor Building Elevation 565 Northeast

All other Reactor Building areas

RWCU has been successfully isolated

1100 mR/hr

800 mR/hr

850 mR/hr

1050 mR/hr

NOT ALARMED

Which ONE of the following describes the required action that MUST be directed by the Unit Supervisor

and/or Shift Manager?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

A.

Enter 2-EOI-1, RPV Control and initiate a Reactor Scram due to two EOI-3 areas being above Max

Safe.

B.oI

Enter 2-GOI-100-12A, Unit Shutdown and commence a normal shutdown and cooldown due to two

areas above Max Safe with the source of the leak isolated .

C.

Scram the reactor and Emergency depressurize the reactor due to two EOI-3 areas being above

Max Safe.

D.

Rapidly depressurize the reactor with Bypass Valves due to Emergency Depressurization being

anticipated.

KIA Statement:

295033 High Secondarv Containment Area Radiation Levels / 9

EA2.01 - Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to HIGH SECONDARY

CONTAINMENT AREA RADIATION LEVELS: Area radiation levels

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine the required actions which result from high secondary containment radiation

levels as indicated by Area Radiation Monitoring instrumentation.

References:

2-EOI-3 Flowchart

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

(

REFERENCE PROVIDED: 2-EOI-3 Flowchart

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following:

1. Which area(s) are above or approachin,g Max Safe

2. Based on Item #1 above, determine the appropriate action.

A is incorrect. This is plausible because this action requires at least one area greater than Max Safe.

However, this is not appropriate since the source of the leak is isolated.

B is correct.

C is incorrect. This is plausible because this action requires two areas greater than Max Safe. However,

this is not appropriate since the source of the leak is isolated.

D is incorrect. This is plausible because this action requires at least one area greater than Max Safe and

another area approaching Max Safe. However, this is not appropriate since the source of the leak is

isolated.

TABLE 4

-

SECONDARY CNTMTAREA RADIATION

APPUCABLE

MAX

MAX

P01ENTIAL

AREA

RADIATION

NORMAL

SAFE

ISOLATION

INDICATORS

VALUEMRlHR

VALUEMR/HR

SOURCES

RHR SYSJPUMPS

9o-2!iA

ALARMED

1000

FCV-74-41*.1a

RHRSYSII PUMPS

9O-2M

ALARMED

1000

FCV-74-41*.1a

HPClROOM

9O-2AA

AlARMED

1000

FC~~2.3.44.81

CSSYSI PUMPS

9O-26A

ALAfUAED

1000

FCV-71-2.3.~

RClCROOM

CS SYSIIPUMPS

<X>-27A

ALARMED

1000

NONE

TQPOFTORUS

FCV-13-2. 3. 81

~29A

ALARMED

1000

FCV-74-47.48

GENERAL AREA

FCV-71-Z,3

RBEI.$5W

~20A

ALARMED

1000

FCV~1.2.12

SDVVENfS & DRAINS

RBEl.56SE

~21A

ALARMED

1000

SDVVENfS 8; DRAINS

RBEI.!05NE

~~A

AlARMED

1000

NONE

TIPROOM

~22A

ALARMED

100.000

TIP8All VALVE

R8E1.593

~13A.14A

ALARMED

1@

FCV-74-47.48

R8 El.G21

9O-9A

ALARMED

1000

FCV-43-13,14

RECIRC tAG SETS

00-4A

ALARMED

1000

NONE

REFUEl. FLOOR

00-1A. 2A. 3A

AI.A.QMED

1000

NONE

NO L

L

L

\\

~

_..**...

.'

.;'

..-

/.'.'

.'...

"

~..~...

SC/M

NO

L

L

l0

,,I'

............................................_\\

.'

..\\

<<,,#.

.'

.'

I'

..-

..,~4r

.'

  • 1"

YES L

SC/R-4

\\ ....

L

L

.~

_._ -.__ _._-

-

\\

L

WHEN

AADlATJONlVlslN20R MOREAAEAS

--

AAEA80VE MAXSAFE{rABLE4}

ll1EN

CONnNUE

SClR-7

EMERGENCY RPV DEPRESSURIZAnON IS REQUIRED

{EOI-1,RClN; C1-2; C1-21;C5-1)

SCJR-8

L

.,

~

WHILE EXECUTING THE FOLLOWING STEPS:

IF

THEN

EMERGENCY RPV DEPRESSURIZATION

IS ANTICIPATED

AND

RAPIDLY DEPRESSURIZE THE RPV

WITH THE MAIN TURB BYPASS VLVs

.

THE REACTOR WILL REMAIN SUBCRITICAL

IRRESPECTIVE OF COOLDOWN RATE

WITHOUT BORON UNDER ALL CONDITIONS

(SEE NOTE)

E

MINATION

REFERENCE

PROVIDED TO

( CANDIDATE

(

C"')*-oIII

(If)*

-

rl

o

W

J

11HT-tTTi":rn

I

il'ltTt1lnTTm

S *"

iI

J~I!U

IJ .

I

l.:! **;.

II !

-

I~llil

II

III

I

i il1

r 0'

U:~ II

! liil ll i II j

"I

II

ill

II

_

'Sj . iI ill IIIi !

f

I

I 1.._. ! I !'","I *

I tlPI

  • 1.1

1

(If)*-oII

65. RO 295035EA2.02 OOl/C/A/EOI/EOI-3/S85/295035EA2 .02//RO/SRO/

Given the following plant conditions:

Unit 2 is at 100% power.

During the backwash of a RWCU demineralizer the backwash receiving tank ruptured.

The RWCU system has been isolated.

Secondary containment conditions are as follows:

- All Reactor and Refuel Zone radiation monitors trip on high radiation.

- ONLY SGT train "C" can be started.

- It is operating at 10000 scfm and taking suction on the refuel and reactor zones .

- Refuel zone pressure :

- Reactor zone pressure:

- AREA RADIATION LEVELS

RB EL 565 W, 565 E, 565 NE:

RB EL 593

RB EL 621

-0.12 inches of water.

+0.02 inches of water.

250 mr/hr

upscale

upscale

Which ONE of the following describes the required action and the type of radioactive release in progress?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

A.

Initiate a shutdown per 2-GOI-100-12A. Elevated radiation release.

B~ Initiate a shutdown per 2-GOI-100-12A Ground level radiation release.

C. Scram the reactor, emergency depressurize the RPV. Elevated radiation release .

D.

Scram the reactor, emergency depressurize the RPV. Ground level radiation release.

KIA Statement:

295035 Secondary Containment High Differential Pressure

EA2.02 - Ability to determine and/or interpret the following as they apply to SECONDARY

CONTAINMENT HIGH DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE: Off-site release rate: Plant-Specific

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to correctly

identify the type of off-site release and required actions due to high differential pressure in the secondary

containment.

References: 2-EOI-3 Flowchart

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to solve a problem. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to resolve the problem .

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: 2-EOI-3 flowchart

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following :

1. Which area(s) are above or approaching Max Safe

2. Based on Item #1 above, determine the appropriate action.

3. Whether plant conditions indicate an elevated or ground level release.

NOTE: EOI-3 steps SC/R-8 and SC/R-9 apply, requiring shutdown per 2-GOI-100-12A because 2 or

more areas are above max safe rad levels but a primary system is not discharging to the RB. Insufficient

RB to atmosphere dp (greater than -0.25 inches of water) indicates loss of secondary containment

integrity. The positive reactor zone pressure is causing an unmonitored and uncontrolled ground level

release of radioactive contaminants.

A is incorrect. The release from the Reactor Building is not elevated . This is plausible because the

required actions are correct except the differential pressure results in a ground level release.

B is correct.

C is incorrect. Conditions do not warrant a scram at this point. In addition, the release from the Reactor

Building is not elevated. This is plausible if the candidate fails to recognize that a primary system is not

discharging to the Reactor Building.

D is incorrect. Conditions do not warrant a scram at this point. This is plausible if the candidate fails to

recognize that a primary system is not discharging to the Reactor Building.

TABLE 4

-

SECONDARY CNTMT AREA RADIATION

APPLICABLE

MAX

MAX

POTENTIAL

AREA

RADIATION

NORMAL

SAFE

ISOLATION

INDICATORS

VALUEMR/HR

VALUEMRIHR

SOURCES

RHR SYS I PUMPS

9o-~

ALARMED

1000

FCV-74-47.48

RHR SYS II PU}.1PS

gO-2M

ALARt.1ED

1000

FCV-14-47.48

HPCIROOM

9O-2AA

ALARMED

1000

FCV-73-2. ~. 44. 81

CSSYS I PUMPS

9O-2GA

AlARMED

1000

FCV-11 -2.~ . 39

RCICROOM

CS SYS II PUMPS

9O-27A

ALARMED

1000

NONE

TOP OF TORUS

FCV-73-2.3, 81

9O-29A

AlARMED

1000

FCV-74-41.48

GENERAL AREA

FCV-11-2,3

RBEl&S5W

9O-2OA

AlARt.IED

1000

FCV~1 .2.12

SOVVENrS &. DRAINS

RB El!i65 E

90-21A

AlARMED

1000

SOVVENrS 8.DRAINS

RBEl!i65 NE

9O-23A

AlARMED

1000

NONE

TIP ROOM

9O-22A

AlARMED

100.000

nPBAtt VALVE

RBEl593

90-13A., 14A

AlARMED

100:>

FCV-14-47.48

RBEl621

9O-9A

AlARMED

100:>

FCV-43-13.14

RECIRC MG SETS

9iJ.4A

AlARMED

1000

NONE

REFUel A.OOR

9O-1A. 2A, 3A

AlARMED

1(XX)

NONE

t~

ISOIoATe&.SYSTEMS THATAREDISCHARGING

INTOTHEAREAEXCEPT SYSTEMSREQUIRED TO;

8EOPEAAlEO 8YEO's

QR

..

SUPPRESSA FIRE

L

SCIR-3

NO L

L

\\

,..:

~

..-

/.'

./.'

"

  • ....*/ .

SCfR-9

L

(0

/'

.............................................\\

.,.-

".'

/

,..".-.

" IJ "

<<,r,ff

YES L

SCIRr4

f)

\\

NO L

L

L

80M

L

._ _---_._--_ _._

_

\\

L

VllHEN

RADIATION LVls IN:2OR MOREAREAS

AREABOVEMAXSAFE{TABLE4)

D:!.Sti

CONl1NUE

SCJR-7

EMERGENCY RPV DEPRESSURlZAll0N IS REQUIRED

(EOI-1,RClP-4: C1-2; C1-21;C5-1)

L

SCIR-8

E

MINATION

REFERENCE

..

PROVIDED TO

CANDIDATE

CW)

J

  • - I

ri

. . . .

0

f

(

W

..

m* :!

e , i!

Jii II

!

I

ih II III

.1 111

111 I

I

I

I I I: IIII

1I

ii 'Ill! I ! I I !! IIII

Ht>

I

1mI

II I I

i

J j

I

. ,

I

I

d 111lfl! !! mllJ

..!I

t

ell! t

iI

J~I~n

il

,

I

C")*-

oIII

CW)*-ow

J

11$ '

iii'

nl

I'

a_

t

Ill! l!

l! . !

I.

i 'I.

iP II

1 IiIi.' Ii

-I

If

1.1

II

Iii Ii iI ill II

I

I I

Ir

I

I, ..

I

I~II

I I

II ", I .

Ill~

J 1;1

I~~~-.L_------,--_

(

66. RO GENERIC 2.1.33 OOl/C/A/T3///GENERIC 2.1.33//RO/SRO/ll/25/07 RMS

Which ONE of the following describes the protective function(s) required to be Operable for the specified

mode and/or condition?

A.

Starting up in Mode 2 with IRM's on range 1 to 2:

IRM Hi Scram function

BPWS

RBM

APRM Hi (setdown - 15%).

B.

Starting up in Mode 2 with APRM downscales clear:

APRM Hi (setdown - 15%)

APRM Hi (120%)

Mode switch - Shutdown position

RWM.

C'!" Shutting down in Mode 2 with IRM's on range 1 to 2:

IRM Hi Scram function

BPWS

Manual Scram pushbuttons

RWM.

D.

Shutting down in Mode 2 with average SRM readings at -5x101 cps:

IRM Hi Scram function

APRM Hi (setdown - 15%)

OPRM upscale trip

RWM.

KIA Statement:

Conduct of Operations

2.1.33 Ability to recognize indications for system operating parameters which are entry-level conditions for

technical specifications

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine when entry into Technical Specifications is required .

References:

Technical Specifications

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledqe and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

(

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following:

1. Tech Spec applicability for the listed systems with the given plant condition.

NOTE: The distractors are all plausibe since only one system or function is incorrect in each distractor.

A is incorrect. The RBM is not required until >27% rated power.

S is incorrect. The APRM Hi (120%) is not required until Mode 1

C is correct.

D is incorrect. the OPRMs are not required until Mode 1 and >25% rated power.

Control Rod Block Instrumentation

3.3.2.1

Table 3.3.2.1-1 (page 1 of 1)

Control Rod Block Instrumentation

FUNCTION

APPLICABLE

MODES OR

OTHER

SPECIFIED

CONDITIONS

REQUIRED

CHANNELS

SURVEILLANCE

ALLOWABLE

REQUIREMENTS

VALUE

1.

Rod Block Monitor

a.

Low Power Range - Upscale

(a)

2

b.

Intermediate Power Range - Upscale

(b)

2

c.

High Power Range - Upscale

(f),(g)

2

d.

Inop

(g),(h)

2

e.

Downscale

(g),(h)

2

2.

Rod Worth Minimizer

1(c),2(c)

SR 3.3.2.1.1

(e)

SR 3.3.2.1.4

SR 3.3.2.1.8

SR 3.3.2.1.1

(e)

SR 3.3.2.1.4

SR 3.3.2.1.8

SR 3.3.2.1.1

(e)

SR 3.3.2.1.4

SR 3.3.2.1.8

SR 3.3.2.1.1

NA

SR 3.3.2.1.1

(i)

SR 3.3.2.1.4

SR 3.3.2.1.2

NA

SR 3.3.2.1.3

SR 3.3.2.1.5

SR 3.3.2.1.7

3.

Reactor Mode Switch -

Shutdown Position

(d)

2

SR 3.3.2.1.6

NA

(a)

THERMAL POWER ~ 27% and s 62% RTP and MCPR less than the value specified in the COLR.

(b)

THERMAL POWER> 62% and s 82% RTP and MCPR less than the value specified in the COLR.

(c)

With THERMAL POWER s 10% RTP.

(d)

Reactor mode switch in the shutdown position.

(e)

Less than or equal to the Allowable Value specified in the COLR.

(f)

THERMAL POWER> 82% and < 90% RTP and MCPR less than the value specified in the COLR.

(g)

THERMAL POWER ~ 90% RTP and MCPR less than the value specified in the COLR.

(h)

THERMAL POWER ~ 27% and < 90% RTP and MCPR less than the value specified in the COLR.

(i)

Greater than or equal to the Allowable Value specified in the COLR.

(

BFN-UNIT 1

3.3-20

Amendment No. 2-M,262

September 27, 2006

RPS Instrumentation

3.3.1 .1

Table 3.3.1.1-1 (page 1 of 3)

Reactor Protection System Instrumentation

FUNCTION

APPLICABLE

MODES OR

OTHER

SPECIFIED

CONDITIONS

REQUIRED

CHANNELS

PER TRIP

SYSTEM

CONDITIONS

REFERENCED

FROM

REQUIRED

ACTION 0 .1

SURVEILLANCE

ALLOWABLE

REQUIREMENTS

VALUE

1.

Intermediate Range Monitors

a.

Neutron Flux - High

2

3

G

SR 3.3.1.1.1

s 120/125

SR 3.3.1.1.3

divisions of full

SR 3.3.1.1.5

scale

SR 3.3.1.1.6

SR 3.3.1.1.9

SR 3.3.1.1.14

5(a)

3

H

SR 3.3.1.1.1

~ 120/125

SR 3.3.1.1.4

divisions of full

SR 3.3.1.1.9

scale

SR 3.3.1.1.14

b.

Inop

2

3

G

SR 3.3.1.1.3

NA

SR 3.3.1.1.14

5(a)

3

H

SR 3.3.1.1.4

NA

SR 3.3.1.1 .14

2.

Average Power Range Monitors

a.

Neutron Flux * High,

2

3(b)

G

SR 3.3.1.1.1

~ 15% RTP

Setdown

SR 3.3.1.1.6

SR 3.3.1.1.7

SR 3.3.1.1.13

SR 3.3.1.1.16

b.

Flow Biased Simulated

3(b)

F

SR 3.3.1.1.1

s 0.66 W

Therma l Power - High

SR 3.3.1.1.2

+ 66% RTP

SR 3.3.1.1.7

and s 120%

SR 3.3.1.1.13

RTP(c)

SR 3.3.1.1.16

c.

Neutron Flux - High

3(b)

F

SR 3.3.1.1.1

~ 120% RTP

SR 3.3.1.1.2

SR 3.3.1.1.7

SR 3.3.1.1.13

SR 3.3.1.1.16

(continued)

(a)

With any control rod withdrawn from a core cell containing one or more fuel assemblies.

(b)

Each APRM channel provides inputs to both trip systems.

(c)

[0.66 W + 66% - 0.66 t>W] RTP when reset for single loop operation per LCO 3.4.1, "Recirculation Loops Operating :

BFN-UNIT 1

3.3-6

Amendment No. 236, 262, 269

March 06, 2007

(

RPS Instrumentation

3.3.1 .1

Table 3.3.1.1-1 (page 2 of 3)

Reactor Protection System Instrumentation

FUNCTION

2.

Average Power Range

Monitors (continued)

d.

Inop

e.

2-0ut-Of-4 Voter

f.

OPRM Upscale

3.

Reactor Vessel Steam Dome

Pressure - High(d)

4.

Reactor Vessel Water Level -

Low, LeveI3(d)

5.

Main Steam Isolation Valve -

Closure

6.

Drywell Pressure - High

7.

Scram Discharge Volume

Water Level - High

APPLICABLE

MODES OR

OTHER

SPECIFIED

CONDITIONS

1,2

1,2

1,2

1,2

1,2

REQUIRED

CHANNELS

PER TRIP

SYSTEM

2

2

8

2

CONDITIONS

REFERENCED

FROM

REQUIRED

ACTION D.1

G

G

G

G

F

G

SURVEILLANCE

REQUIREMENTS

SR 3.3.1.1.16

SR 3.3.1.1.1

SR 3.3.1.1.14

SR 3.3.1.1.16

SR 3.3.1.1.1

SR 3.3.1.1.7

SR 3.3.1.1.13

SR 3.3.1.1.16

SR 3.3.1.1.17

SR 3.3.1.1.1

SR 3.3.1.1.8

SR 3.3.1.1.10

SR 3.3.1.1.14

SR 3.3.1.1.1

SR 3.3.1.1.8

SR 3.3.1.1.13

SR 3.3.1.1.14

SR 3.3.1.1.8

SR 3.3.1.1.13

SR 3.3.1.1.14

SR 3.3.1.1.8

SR 3.3.1.1.13

SR 3.3.1.1.14

ALLOWABLE

VALUE

NA

NA

NA

S 1090 psig

~ 528 inches

abovevessel

zero

S 10% closed
s 2.5 psig

a.

Resistance Temperature

Detector

1,2

2

G

SR 3.3.1.1.8

s 50 gallons

SR 3.3.1.1.13

SR 3.3.1.1.14

5(a)

2

H

SR 3.3.1.1.8

s 50 gallons

SR 3.3.1.1.13

SR 3.3.1.1.14

(continued)

(a)

'Mth any control rod withdrawn from a core cell containing one or more fuel assemb lies.

(b)

Each APRM channel provides inputs to both trip systems.

(d)

During instrument calibrations, if the As Found channel setpoint is conservative with respect to the Allowable Value but outside its acceptable As Found

band as defined by its assodated Surveillance Requirement procedure, then there shall be an initial determination to ensure confidence that the channel

can perform as required before retuming the channel to service in accordance with the Surveillance . If the As Found instrument channel setpoint is not

conservative with respect to the Allowable Value, the channel shall be dedared inoperable.

Prior to retum ing a channel to service , the instrument channel setpoint shall be calibrated to a value that is within the acceptable As Left tolerance of the

setpoint; otherwise, the channel shall be dedared inoperable.

The nominal Trip Setpoint shall be spedfied on design output documentation which is incorporated by reference in the Updated Final Safety Analysis

Report. The methodology used to determine the nominal Trip Setpoint, the predefined As Found Tolerance, and the As Left Tolerance band, and a

listing of the setpoint design output documentation shall be spedfied in Chapter 7 of the Updated Final Safety Analysis Report.

BFN-UNIT 1

3.3-7

Amendment No. 269

234, 262, 259, 257,258, 266

March 06, 2007

67. RO GENERIC 2.1.16 00 IIMEM/T3//B17/G2.1.16///

~ Wh iCh ONE of the following announcements is an INAPPROPRIATE use of the Plant Paging System in

I

accordance with OPDP-1, Conduct of Operations?

(

A.

There is a fire in the Unit-2 Shutdown Board Room. I repeat. There is a fire in the Unit-2 Shutdown

Board Room.

B.

Operations will be starting the 2 Alpha RHR pump.

C.

Shift Manager dial 2391. Shift Manager dial 2391

D." This is a drill. All personnel evacuate the Unit 2 Reactor Building due to high radiation.

KIA Statement:

Conduct of Operations

2.1.16 Ability to operate plant phone, paging system, and two-way radio

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KiA statement by requiring the candidate to demonstrate

specific knowledge of the use of the Plant Paging System while communicating with plant personnel.

References:

OPDP-1

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information .

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the following:

1. The requirements associated with making Page Announcements per OPDP-1.

2. Whether the announcement meets those requirements

A is incorrect. This is plausible because it is an expected announcement during a fire.

B is incorrect. This is plausible since the page is not repeated. However, repeating pages for a normal

operation is not required.

C is incorrect. This is plausible since the page is repeated. However, there may not be a requirement t

repeat the announcement, but it is not an inappropriate action.

D is correct. The line "This is a drill" is required at the beginning and END of each commun ication during

drills or exercises. In addition, an announcement of such urgency should be repeated.

TVAN Standard

Conduct of Operations

OPDP-1

Department

Rev.OOOS

Procedure

Page 55 of 103

Appendix I

(Page 3 of 5)

Communications

b.

Use equipment noun names and/or identification (10) numbers to describe a

component.

,

c.

The use of sign language is undesired but maybe used when verbal

communications is not practical.

d.

Take time when reporting abnormal conditions. Speak deliberately, distinctly

and calmly. Identify yourself and watch station or your location. Describe the

nature and severity of the problem. State the location of the problem if

appropriate. Keep the communication line open if possible or until directed

otherwise.

e.

The completion of directed actions should be reported to the governing station,

normally the control room.

f.

Require other plant personnel (including contractors) conducting operational

communication to do so in accordance with this procedure.

g.

If there is any doubt concerning any portion of the communication or task

assigned, resolve it before taking any action.

h.

When making announcements for drills or exercises begin and end the

announcement with "This is a Drill."

4.

Emergency Communications Systems

When personnel are working in areas where the public address (PA) system or emergency

signals cannot be heard, alternate methods for alerting these persons should be devised.

Flashing lights, personal pagers that vibrate and can be felt, and persons dedicated to

notifications are examples of alternate methods.

5.

PA System

a.

Use of the plant PA system shall be limited to ensure it retains its effectiveness

in contacting plant personnel. Excessive use of the PA system should be

avoided. Plant telephones and other point-to-point communications channels

should be used in lieu of the PA system whenever practical.

b.

The announcement of planned starting or stopping large equipment should be

made to alert personnel working in that area.

c.

The plant PA system may be used in abnormal or emergency conditions, to

announce change of plant status, or give notification of major plant events either

in progress or anticipated.

(

TVAN Standard

Conduct of Operations

OPDP-1

Department

Rev.OOOa

Procedure

Page 56 of 103

Appendix I

(Page 4 of 5)

Communications

d.

When using the plant PA system:

(1)

Speak slowly and deliberately in a normal tone of voice.

(2)

When announcements of abnormal or emergency conditions are made,

they shall be made at least twice.

(3)

When making announcements for drills or exercises begin and end the

announcement with "This is a Drill."

6.

Plant Telephones

When using Plant telephones:

a.

Identify yourself and watch station.

b.

When trying to make contact with the main Control Room, if the message is of a

routine nature, the sender should hang up when the main Control Room fails to

answer after the fifth ring to avoid unnecessary Control Room noise. The

phone shall be allowed to ring until answered if the information is important to

Operations.

c.

During times when the DO NOT DISTRUB (DND) function has been used by

MCR personnel, follow the directions on the recording as appropriate.

d.

When making announcements for drills or exercises begin and end the

announcement with "This is a Drill."

7.

Radio/phone Communication

Radio/phone usage shall not be allowed in areas where electronic interference with

plant equipment may result.

a.

When making announcements for drills or exercises, begin and end the

announcement with "This is a Drill."

b.

Sender should identify themselves by watch station.

c.

Three way communications should be used.

d.

Clear concise language should be used since radio/phone contact does not

have the advantage of face to face communication.

68. RO GENERIC 2.1.18 OOl/MEM/T3/12.11/GENERIC 2.1.18//RO/SRO/l l/27/07 RMS

Which ONE of the following is an INEFFECTIVE use of the phonetic alphabet in accordance with

OPDP-1, Conduct of Operations?

A.

Place Gulf IRM in Bypass per 1-01-92-Bravo.

B.

Start 2-Alpha RHR pump per 3-01-74.

C."

Place Romeo-Papa-Sierra 2-Alpha on Alternate per 2-0scar-lndia-99.

D.

Transfer 2-Alpha 480 volt shutdown board to Alternate.

KIA Statement:

Conduct of Operations

2.1.18 Ability to make accurate, clear and concise logs, records, status boards, and reports

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to demonstrate

knowledge of the requirements related to verbal communications or reports during shift operations.

References:

OPDP-1

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the requirements for use of the

phonetic alphabet and apply that knowledge to the given communications.

NOTE: Each distractor is plausible because they all contain at least one use of th phonetic alphabet.

A is incorrect. This communication is appropriate.

B is incorrect. This communication is appropriate.

C is correct. The use of the phonetic alphabet for common acronyms, such as RPS, is not required and

could reduce the effectiveness of the communication.

D is incorrect. This communication is appropriate.

/

TVAN Standard

Conduct of Operations

OPDP-1

Department

Rev. 0008

Procedure

Page 54 of 103

Appendix I

(Page 2 of 5)

Communications

b.

The receiver repeats back the message to the sender. The repeat back can be

verbatim or functional. In many cases a functional repeat back best

communicates the receivers understanding of the message. This can be done in

several ways to accomplish the desired goals. For example the sender might

say, "Bob, report RCS pressure and trend." The receiver could respond in either

of two ways.

(1)

The receiver could respond with, "Report RCS pressure and trend. RCS

pressure is 2250 psig and stable."

Or

(2)

The receiver could respond with, "RCS pressure is 2250 psig and stable."

c.

The sender verbally acknowledges that the receiver correctly understood the

message. The verbal acknowledgement can be simple such as, That is

correct". If the sender has requested and received information then the sender

shall provide either verbatim or functional repeat back to demonstrate his

understanding of the receiver's message. For the example above the sender

could respond with, "I understand 2250 and stable."

2.

Phonetic Alphabet

The phonetic alphabet is a tool to improve communications. In general, operations

communication should use the phonetic alphabet except when well established acronyms

describe the subject. If use of phonetic alphabet will reduce effectiveness of

communications then it should not be used. The following are examples of when the

phonetic alphabet should not be used:

a.

It is not desirable to use Romeo-Charlie-Sierra to describe the RCS (Reactor

Coolant System).

b.

If a procedural step is written using acronyms, it may be read and ordered as

such.

c.

If a component tag or label is written using acronyms then the acronyms may be

used.

3.

General Standards

a.

All communications shall be clear, concise, and precise. All operational

communications shall be conducted in a formal and professional manner. In all

communications, the sender and intended receiver should be readily identifiable.

69. RO GENERIC 2.2.13 00I/MEM/T3/10.2/7/18/GENERIC 2.2.13/3.6/3.8/RO/SR0/11/26/07 RMS

Which ONE of the following describes the requirements when placing a clearance on air operated

valves?

A.

An air operated valve that fails closed on loss of air SHALL NOT be considered closed for blocking

purposes unless it is held closed with a gagging device.

B.

An air operated valve that fails open on loss of air SHALL NOT be used for blocking purposes.

C.'; An air operated valve that fails open on loss of air, will be held closed with a gagging device that is

tagged as a clearance boundary.

D.

An air operated valve that fails 'as-is' on loss of air SHALL NOT be used for blocking purposes until

it is verified closed and a gagging device installed.

KIA Statement:

Equipment Control

2.2.13 Knowledge of tagging and clearance procedures

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to demonstrate

knowledge of the Clearance and Tagging requirements.

References: spp 10.2

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the requirements for Clearance

and tagging procedure. SPP 10-2 and apply that knowledge to the given conditions.

A is incorrect. This is plausible since a locking device would ensure the valve does not open, however

SPP 10-2 requires the air supply to actuate the valve be mechanically or electrically isolated.

B is incorrect. This is plausible since using a "Fail-Open" valve presents a difficult problem. however

SPP 10-2 provides specific guidance to allow their use as a clearance boundry .

C is correct.

D is incorrect. This is plausible because in most cases it is true. However, SPP 10-2 provides specific

guidance and controls to allow using them as a clearance boundry under condition that the clearance be

considered "working on energized equipment".

(

(

NPG Standard

Clearance Procedure to

SPP-10.2

Programs and

Safely Control Energy

Rev. 0010

Processes

Page 50 of 66

Appendix E

(Page 1 of 2)

Special Requirements for Mechanical Clearances

1.0

REQUIREMENTS

A.

An air-operated valve that fails open on a loss of air is not be considered closed for

.blocking purposes unless it is held closed with an installed jacking device or device

used to secure the valve in the required position. A clearance tag will be issued and

attached to the jacking or other device.

B.

An air-operated valve that fails closed must have its air supply electrically or

mechanically isolated, depressurized, and the valve visually checked-to-be-c1osed by

local or remote indication. The air supply energy-isolating devices must be tagged.

C.

An air-operated valve that fails "as is" shall be closed and mechanically restrained. Its

air supply should be electrically or mechanically isolated, depressurized, and the valve

visually checked to be closed by local or remote indication. The air supply energy-

isolating devices and mechanical restraint must be tagged.

D.

In cases where it is not possible to physically secure an air operated valve that fails

"as-is" in the closed position, the valve will be tagged closed by applying closing air to

the valve diaphragm by the use of the solenoid valve air overrides and tagging both the

hand-switch in the closed position and the solenoid valve air overrides. Prior to

allowing work to begin, the equipment will be drained and de-pressurized to ensure the

boundary valves are holding. This condition will be noted in the remarks section of the

clearance sheet to inform PAE/Authorized Employee(s) that pressurized air is required

to ensure the valve remains closed. This work is considered "working on energized

equipment" and must be approved by the management official in charge.

E.

Pressure controlled valves, relief valves, and check valves will not be used as isolation

boundary valves under normal conditions. Where such a valve does not have an

external means of physical restraint, the work is considered "working on energized

equipment" and must be approved by the management official in charge.

F.

The following instructions govern the use of freeze plugs

1.

The clearance should be in place, but not issued, before establishing the freeze

plug.

2.

The need for the freeze plug should be identified on the Remarks Section of the

clearance sheet. The freeze plug should not be listed as a device held on the

clearance sheet. The establishment and maintenance of the freeze plug shall be

in accordance with approved procedures or work documents.

3.

The freeze plug must be attended by qualified personnel to ensure that it is

maintained intact until all work is complete and the proper Post Maintenance

Tests (PMTs) are performed.

4.

If the clearance must be released to allow performance of a PMT, the equipment

must be retagged before allowing the freeze plug to thaw. This will prevent

migration of a portion of the plug.

(

70. RO GENERIC 2.2.33 00l/CIA/SYS/RWM//G2.2.33/RO 2.5//10122/07

Given the following plant conditions:

-

A reactor startup is in progress

-

Reactor Power: 3%

-

RWM latched into Group 8 (12 control rods)

-

Group 9 rods are the same rods as Group 8.

-

Sequence Control:

ON

-

Group 8 Limits: 08-12

-

Group 9 Limits: 12-16

Which ONE of following describes when the RWM will automatically latch up to Group 9?

A...;

all rods in group 8 have been withdrawn to the group 8 withdraw limit and a rod in group 9 has been

selected.

B.

all rods EXCEPT 3 in group 8 are withdrawn to the group withdraw limit, and a rod in group 9 is

selected.

C.

all rods EXCEPT 1 in group 8 are withdrawn to the group withdraw limit and a rod in group 9 has to

be selected and moved.

D.

the last rod in group 8 is withdrawn to the group 8 withdraw limit and the in-sequence rod in group 9

has NOT been selected.

KIA Statement:

Equipment Control

2.2.33 Knowledge of control rod programming.

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to recognize and

apply limitations on control rod programming enforced by the Rod Worth Minimizer program.

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble ,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to solve a problem. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to resolve the problem.

0610 NRC Exam

(

REFERENCE: Lesson Plan OPL171.024 Rev. 13 pages 13 - 15

Plausibility Analysis:

Answer A is the correct answer.

Answer B is incorrect. This is plausible because the RWM normally allows three insert errors without

generating a rod block, however it will not latch up to a higher group under this condition because the

three rods are more than one notch from the withdraw limit.

Answer C is incorrect. The selected control rod does not have to be moved to latch to Group 9. This is

plausible because the RWM will latch to the highest group with one rod past the insert limit if the RWM is

latching to a group from an unknown condition . Since this is a known condition, the RWM will latch to

Group 9 without moving the selected rod.

Answer D is incorrect. The RWM will not latch to the next group until the correct rod is selected in Group

9 because Sequence Control is ON. This is plausible if Sequence Control is OFF. Under that condition,

the RWM only looks for rods within the Group and not within a specific sequence. With Sequence Control

in OFF, the RWM will latch up to Group 9 as soon as the last rod reaches the withdraw limit.

These 3 rods would

cause an insert

block if GP 8 were

latched.

OPL171.024

Revision 13

Page 13 of 53

(

INSTRUCTOF1 NOTES

(8)

Upon demand by the operator via

the Scan/Latch request function.

(9)

Following correction of Insert or

Withdraw Errors. .

d.

The latched group is the highest group

which can be achieved without producing

an active insert block condition.

(1)

The RWM system will latch to the

highest group in the sequence with:

(a)

At least one rod withdrawn

past the group insert limit and

(b)

No other groups below have

three insert errors

(2)

Example: Relatch at an intermediate

power level

(a)

Assume that RWM has been

out of service and rods have

been moved out of sequence.

The following rod distribution

exists:

(1)

All rods in Group 1 thru

7 are at their withdraw

limit, except rods 30-

35, 38-43 and 38-27

(GP. 7) which are at

position 02.

(2)

All rods in Groups 8

and above are at their

insert limit (04) except

for rod 30-03 (GP 8)

which is at position 06.

(3)

No rod is selected

(

(b)

After returning the RWM to

service:

OPL171.024

Revision 13

Page 14 of 53

INSTRUCTOR NOTES

11.

(1)

Group 7 will be the

latched group

(2)

Rod 30-03 will be

displayed as a withdraw

error.

(3)

The withdraw block status

indicators will indicate a

withdrawal block condition

on the RWM system

displays and RWM switch

panel.

(4)

No other control rod may

be inserted or withdrawn

until the withdraw error

rod from Group 8 (30-03)

is corrected. It can only

be inserted.

(c)

The proper way to correct the

out of sequence condition is to

insert the withdraw error rod (30-

03) to position "04".

This removes the withdraw error;

leaves group 7 as the latched

group, and removes the

withdraw block indications on the

RWM system displays and RWM

switch panel.

Automatic Latching Up/Down

a.

The automatic latching process depends on

whether or not RWM Sequence Control is ON

or OFF . Sequence Control is normally

selected (ON) and enforces a specific order to

pull rods within a latched group.

b.

When operating below the LPSP with

sequence controlOre", latching to the next

higher or next lower rod group is done

internally by the RWM program only after a

rod in the next group is selected.

NOTE: Upon select

of rod 30-03, an

RWM system

message will be

generated indicating

a target position of

notch "04" for this

control rod

Obj. V.B.10

NOTE: Latching

within Transistion

Zone will be

discussed later.

(3)

(2)

(

c.

(1)

The program will latch down (latch the

next lower group) when all the rods in

the presently latched group have been

inserted to the group insert limit and a

rod in the next group is selected.

(2)

The program will latch up (latch the

next higher group) upon selection of a

rod within the next higher group

provided that only 2 insert errors or less

result from within the current latched

group and/or any lower groups.

When sequence control is NOT selected,

(OFF) , latching automatically occurs based on

rod movement within repeating BPWS banked

groups (ex: 2/3/4/5/6 and 7/8/9/10/11/12).

(1)

For example, if the rods in a group (GP.

4) are the same rods as in the next

. higher group (GP. 5), the RWM will

NOT latch up based solely upon control

rod selection. Latch up to Group 5 will

automatically occur when any of the

rods Group 4 are moved to a position

defined for Group 5 provided that <3

insert errors would result.

If the rods in a group (GP. 5) are the

same rods as the next lower group

(GP. 4), the RWM will not latch down

based solely upon control rod selection.

Latch down to the next lower RWM

group will generally occur in this case

based upon movement of any of the

rods within the group to a position

defined for the next lower RWM group.

If the next rod group is NOT repeating,

then latching occurs when the next rod

is selected.

OPL171.024

Revision 13

Page 15 of 53

INSTRUCTOR NOTES

NOTE: Will latch

down if insert errors

in GP is lower than

latch GP.

Will latch up

provided that the

number of insert

errors produced will

not give an insert

block.

With rods at both a

GP 4 and GP 5

defined position, the

latched GP after a

movement will be

the GP moved into.

71. RO GENERIC 2.3.10 OOl/C/A/GFES/GENERIC/C/A/G2.3.l0/BF0030l/2.9/3.3/GEN 2.3

Given the following conditions at a work site.

(

Airborne activity:

Radiation level:

Radiation level with shielding:

Time to place shielding:

Time to conduct task with respirator:

Time to conduct task without respirator:

Assume the following :

3DAC

40 mr/hr

10 mr/hr

15 minutes

1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />

30 minutes

- the airborne dose with a respirator will be zero.

- a dose rate of 40 mr/hr will be received while placing the shielding.

- all tasks will be performed by one worker.

- shielding can be placed in 15 minutes with or without a respirator.

Which ONE of the following would result in the lowest whole body dose?

A.

Place the shielding while wearing a respirator and conduct the task with a respirator.

B. ~

Place the shielding while wearing a respirator and conduct the task without a respirator.

C.

Conduct the task with a respirator and without shielding.

D.

Conduct the task without a respirator or shielding .

KIA Statement:

Radiation Control

2.3.10 Ability to perform procedures to reduce excessive levels of radiation and guard against personnel

exposure.

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to calculate the

expected exposure for a job and determine the correct precautions and radiological controls required to

minimize exposure.

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

(

(

Plausibility Analysis:

This question requires the candidate to calculate the exposure recevied for each of the four options in the

distractors. Although this question does not specifically contain incorrect but plausible possibilities, it is

based entirely on the type of decision which must be made while performing duties as a Licensed

Operator. Using the calculation below, the candidate must correctly perform the analysis and apply

ALARA principles to select the correct answer.

Calculations required:

3 DAC x 2.5 mr/DAC X 0.5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> =3.75 mr

a. 10 mr placing shielding, 10 mr conducting task, zero airborne = 20 mr

b. 10 mr placing shielding, 5 mr conducting task, 3.75 mr airborne =18.75 mr (lowest dose = Correct)

c. 40 mr conducting task, zero airborne =40 mr

d. 20 mr conducting task, 3.75 mr airborne = 23.75 mr

(

72. RO GENERIC 2.3.9 OOl/C/A/T3/PR.CMPTR//RO GENERIC 2.3.9//RO/SRO/ll/27/07 RMS

Unit 2 reactor shutdown is in progress and primary containment de-inerting has been authorized .

Which ONE of the following is the basis for NOT allowing both 2-FCV-64-19 (SUPPR CHBR ATM SPLY

INBD ISOLATION VLV) and 2-FCV-64-18 (DRYWELL ATM SUPPLY INBD ISOLATION VLV) to be open

simultaneously during the performance of this evolution?

A.

To prevent the high flow rate from damaging the non-hardened ventilation ducts.

B.

To prevent creating a high dP between the primary containment and the Reactor Building.

C." To prevent the possibility of overpressurizing the primary containment during a LOCA.

D.

To prevent release of the drywell atmosphere through an unmonitored ventilation flow path.

KIA Statement:

Radiation Control

2.3.9 Knowledge of the process for performing a containment purge.

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions and times to correctly determine the process for performing a containment purge.

References : 2-01-64, Rev.106, section 8.1

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibilitv Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine the requirements for de-inerting

the Primary Containment and their bases.

A is incorrect. This is plausible becaue high flowrates would result from both valves being open,

however the vent ducts are designed to accomodate such flowrates.

B is incorrect. This is plausible because the de-inerting lineup raises the dP between the Drywell and

Reactor Building, however the rise is relatively insignificant and well within the design limits.

C is correct.

D is incorrect. This is plausible since the vent path is unmonitored, however, having both valves open

simultaneously provides no additional path for a release.

(

BFN

Primary Containment System

2-01-64

Unit2

Rev. 0106

Page 40 of 194

8.0

INFREQUENT OPERATIONS

8.1

Purging the Drywell and Suppression Chamber with Primary

Containment Purge Filter Fan

NOTES

1)

TOE 970823 identified a potential for a bypass flow path to exist between the Drywell

and Suppression Chamber when purging the Drywell and Suppression Chamber at the

same time (both FCV-64-18 and 64-19 opened concurrently). Should a design basis

LOCA occur with these two valves opened at the same time with the Reactor NOT in

Cold Shutdown (Mode 4 or 5), a potential exists for overpressurizing primary

containment due to the pressure suppression function being bypassed. Therefore,

when Primary Containment purging is required with the Reactor NOT in Cold

Shutdown (Mode 4 or 5), the Suppression Chamber and the Drywell are purged

separately.

2)

This section is used when purging both the Drywell and Suppression Chamber

concurrently with the Reactor in Cold Shutdown (Mode 4 or 5).

3)

When the Reactor is NOT in Cold Shutdown (Mode 4 or 5), the Suppression Chamber

and the Drywell are purged separately.

[1]

REVIEW all Precautions and Limitations in Section 3.0.

[2]

VERIFY all Prestartup/Standby Readiness requirements in

Section 4.0 are satisfied.

o

o

[3]

VERIFY the following initial conditions are satisfied:

Drywell vented to less than 0.25 psig.

REFER TO Section 6.1.

0

HzOz analyzers are in service REFER TO 2-01-76

0

Suppression Chamber vented to less than 0.25 psig.

REFER TO Section 6.2.

0

o

[4]

Reactor Zone Fans in operation with Reactor Zone Supply

and Exhaust Fan in fast speed. REFER TO 2-01-308.

0

REQUEST Chemistry to obtain a Drywell sample. REFER TO

2-SI-4.8.8.2-6.

(

[5]

IF sample is within limits of 2-SI-4.8.8.2-6, THEN

NOTIFY Shift Manager.

o

73. RO GENERIC 2.4.47 OOl/C/A/T3/C4/6/G2.4.471IRO/SRO/IO/25107 RMS

Given the following plant conditions:

Reactor pressure is being maintained at 50 psig.

Temperature near the water level instrument run in the drywell is 220°F .

The Shutdown Vessel Flooding Range Instrument ( L1-3-55) is reading +35".

Which ONE of the following describes the highest Drywell Run Temperature at which the L1-3-55 reading

(+35") is considered valid?

REFERENCE PROVIDED

KIA Statement:

Emergency Procedures IPlan

2.4.47 Ability to diagnose and recognize trends in an accurate and timely manner utilizing the appropriate

control room reference material

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to use specific

plant conditions to determine the correct reactor water level under emergency conditions .

References: 2-EOI-3 Flowchart

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as CIA due to the requirement to assemble,

sort, and integrate the parts of the question to predict an outcome. This requires mentally using this

knowledge and its meaning to predict the correct outcome.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: 2-EOI-1 flowchart

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must use EOI Caution #1 to determine operable

RPV water level instruments.

A is incorrect. This is plausible since 200°F is a valid indication, however the question calls for the

HIGHEST temperature.

B is correct.

C is incorrect. This is plausible if the candidate interpolates the Caution #1 table, however this is not

permissible.

D is incorrect. This is plausible if the candidate interpolates the Caution #1 table, however this is not

permissible.

  • ANRPVWATER LVLINSTRUMENT MA.Y BEUSED TO DETERMINE ORTREND LVLONLY WHEN IT READS ABOVE

THE MINIMUM INDICATED LVLASSOCIATED WITHTHEHIGHeST MAXOWORSCRUNTEMP.

  • IFOWTEMPS. OR SCAREATEMPS (TABLE 6).ASAPPLICABLE, AREOUTSIDE THESAFE REGION OFCURVE 8.

THEASSOCIATED INSTRUMENT MA.Y BEUNR8..IABlEDUE TOBOIUNG INTHERUN.

MINIMUM

MAX DW RUN TEMP

MAXSC

INSTRUMENT I

RANGE

I INDICATED

(FROM XR-64-50

RUN TEMP

LVL

OR TI-64-52AB)

(FROM TABLE 6

ON SCALE

N/A

8ElOW150

-145

N/A

151 TO 200

L1-3-S8A, B

I EMERGENCY

-140

N/A

201 TO 250

-155TO +60

-130

N/A

251 TO 300

-120

N/A

301 TO 350

L1-3-53

ON SCALE

N/A

8ELOW 150

L1-3-60

-s

N/A

151T0200

L1-3-206

NORMAL

+15

N/A

201 TO 250

OTO +60

L1*3-253

+20

N/A

251 TO 300

L1-3-20aA. 8, C, D

+30

N/A

301 TO 350

L1*3-52

I

POST

L1-J.62A

ACCIDENT I

ON SCALE

N/A

NfA

-268 TO +32

+10

8ELOW100

N/A

+15

100 TO 150

N/A

SHUTDOWN I

+20

151 T0200

NfA

Ll-3-55

I

FLOODUP I

+30

201 T0250

N/A

OTO +400

I

+40

251 T0300

NfA

+50

301 T0350

N/A

+65

35110400

N/A

~

E

MINATION

REFERENCE

PROVIDED TO

( CANDIDATE

o

2*EOI*1

RPVCONTROL

--- -

- ---- ----

2*EQl~1

1

11.....

I (

'='I~'l

--r-

J

L:-u....._.. 1=="='::- L

~

I

~

1~~~ -=

[-

'I.*

~

..=

")

~

I -$---

I

_,

L

..---j .

.....

l!!Q

I;

>-

~

11-==--'

dlL

t

'-..

-

--,---

I L

""'"_n_

f<I.OCIUN<PI.Nff

W'i

"'""co..-

~..a:-. -"

~I=

iiiiiiiii.

.t;rJ.,.

= ~...,

ENr I:;z..~

!!!!!!--

'woo- -- i *-

........

IL

I:II:

lilll

. ,. ,-

._-...=

I

'1::'_-

--

~------

--

=.::mz=r--=--

--

~_..-

=-:1-==:

!-

--~-~--

' L

iiiii="===-I'...........--

_.....

":.-::.-

0-

,~.:;-

\\.j"",,->

~

.k<o

~

l<!>

-...

-,;;;"

1_

_

.....

-

'L

1__

~-

-

-

IL

1_ _

-

--

'L

1

-- - - ~

__

'L


fw:o

I

'L

'-.. _...... j-.

I L

t : ~\\l,..,.--' J

_

i

L

I

---_.

'L

-

I

1

1

[ - ..

[:

J

$'"":'1f

_

i

L

,",lII\\II

_

L

_._~_

.

.

. .. L

-if""

L

_L

J.

~_......>_C

=:"_--

--**-

I

[I--i

i i

II

l*---..-....

I L

1

"'- ---r--'

MlllAtulIlIfllIlM rDU.OlIIlIIIlmNl

-_...__.

1-

-

E..~

1.---"-'

.-==~--

10 """"".......---

" C'oIIIID:IIG'M"ZoIor

.~.-_.

._1_-

-.

---,--------

, L

r.:==:=,,=

11"-----=

I

j----"--

-- _.__..

I

' L

..

. : --

..

...

iti:-m

--

.-

. -

E==: ~

. -

...

....

.. -

_--'_"I='=-_

...-...A

I .....

.....-.-

r:t=.lIP'"

~

_

" L

- ..-c

'

I

I

I

~

if;-,=- -

........

-L

I

o

.:;:-

,~

.-.

" ..M fVllAlQI"!'J"

- -.

I

OUIM~

MIo\\TIIofoIWlmfDl'LIWf

Ii

""::.....-

1

1 ..

II

--_._--J

r ==....-====-

L.

~

=:?~!!'!K"

"~i

l:

I

iiijj

A

'lIlm"A.v.:.u.,"t'Hr-

, ...

_ __ _ ::_n...

...

~

~

! :-

i

4

L

li*--~

II

_. _- -

-

I

L

I

WiiU D,IOInWOTtll,OLJ,OIMII'-.'

0-f' -

~:I=l:'

.

1lItl7W....--*

.

IIU__

L

I

  • ~ t

1**..-'*

MYT.u..O::L~LIIT

1_

1--1

B.

'::.~II'

.- '

...-

.~'=='~.=.:.~-:..-:=-..-:erP._-

- 1='----"

~

-~

1

~"r.iL

_1A......

_4;,:ur:ll_ .

D~==:'-

..

L

~.

      • MI,"".,"'............

'=,"""\\t.,.

I'

~ =-:::'--.:5"'

...Illli....-

.":~=.,_.n .T:

~

ow=--

.....=.:-._--

z.:::r=::::"-.....

-

I

~:::-.::;=.::- II.

WtIlUlJlIlliITIfll riiiioUOWiiiiOlTliN.

.......llUn ..II'"'.JOU..C:WIIII..~

....----

IiiiWr-

---

.-:;......-=\\:,1z,"'Hiih";;;'

t--._-/=~_.

IL

I~*IL

L

1-- *_..**

1-

0-'1iimr7i.."lIlI":' IiiiiliiW'.ii=" ~ I f----,

C'=l!oIIIIIl\\l'-'.'_'"

EOI*1

(

(

74. RO GENERIC 2.4.15 00I/MEM/T3///GENERIC 2.4.15//RO/SR0/11/27/07 RMS

Given the following plant conditions:

Unit-2 has scrammed and multiple control rods have failed to insert.

The Unit Supervisor has entered EOI-1, RPV Control , and C-5, Level/Power Control.

You have been designated to assist the crew by performing EOI Appendicies as they are

assigned .

Which ONE of the following precludes the use of a hand held radio to communicate with Control Room

personnel?

A.

EOI Appendix 2 in the 2A Electrical Board Room.

B~ EOI Appendix 1C in the U-2 Aux Instrument Room.

C. EOI Appendix 16H at the 2C 250V RMOV Board.

D.

EOI Appendix 1B in the Reactor Building 565 elevation.

KIA Statement:

Emergency Procedures IPlan

2.4.15 Knowledge of communications procedures associated with EOP implementation

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to demonstrate

knowledge of communication requirements that apply during execution of Emergency Operating

Instructions .

References:

OPDP-1

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must determine which of the given locations

violates the requirements of OPDP-1, Conduct of Operation.

A is incorrect. This is plausible bacuse of the safety related equiment powered from 2A Electric Board

Room, however radio communication is authorized.

B is correct.

C is incorrect. This is plausible because of the safety related equipment fed from 2C 250V RMOV

Board, however radio communication is authorized.

D is incorrect. This is plausible because of the proximity of the RPV level instrumentation, however radio

communication is authorized.

USER'S GUIDE FOR EMERGENCY OPERATING INSTRUCTIONS

Exiting the EOIs

L.

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION O-VIII-A

_

(

The operators remain in the EOIs until either directed out by the EOI or when the

SMIUS concludes that an emergency condition no longer exists. Exit from EOI-l and

associated contingency procedures always requires SMIUS determination, since these

procedures have no explicit exit to other plant procedures except from RC/Q to AOI-

100-1. Appendix 100-1 should be reviewed prior to EOI exit to determine, restore, and

document abnormal alterations that were established during EOI execution.

After exiting the EOIs the operator surveys the present plant conditions to ensure no

reason for re-entry to the EOIs exist.

During EOI execution, a SAMG ENTRY IS REQUIRED condition may arise. Entry

into and execution of Severe Accident Management Guidelines (SAMGs) are the

responsibility ofthe SED in the TSC. Significant time may be required to man the TSC

with the appropriate SAM Team members and tum over plant conditions between the

control room and the TSC. The control room staffterminate execution ofALL EOI

flowcharts ONLY when the SED declares that the SAM Team has assumed command

and control. EOI appendices may continue in use as directed by the SAMGs.

During the time between the development ofthe SAMG ENTRY IS REQUIRED

condition and the time of assumption of command and control by the TSC, the control

room staff shall continue use ofavailable EOI guidance to mitigate the event.

Development ofa SAMG ENTRY IS REQUIRED condition always requires entry into

the SAMGs when the TSC SAM Team assumes command and control, even ifplant

conditions subsequently develop which seem to no longer satisfy a requirement to enter

SAMGs.

3.5

Duties ofthe Control Room Team Members While Executing EOIs

The specific duties ofthe Control Room Team Members are outlined in Conduct of Operations.

3.6

Shift Communications During Execution ofEOIs

The methodology associated with communications during execution ofthe EOIs is outlined in

Conduct of Operations

3.7

Use ofInstrumentation and ICS/Safety Parameter Display System (SPDS)

Various instruments in the control room are qualified for Post Accident Monitoring . These

instruments are identified with black labels. During the performance ofthe EOIs, these

instruments are required to be utilized as much as practical. For parameters that have multiple

readouts in the control room, the operator should observe as many ofthe multiple readouts as

practical for a verification ofthe values being observed.

Most instruments in the control room are provided with what may be considered standard scale

divisions (increments of 1,5, 10, etc.), although there are some that may be considered off-

normal (increments of2, 3, 4, etc.), Some pressure instruments may read out in PSIA rather than

the more common value ofPSIG.

(

The operator is required to remain aware ofthese possible differences when reading the values

from the instruments. For pressure instruments, the pressure should be called out in values of

PSIA or PSIG, as applicable. When the operator reading the flowchart asks for the value ofa

pressure parameter, it should be assumed that the value be given as PSIG unless he/she solicits

the value in PSIA.

SECTION O-VIlI-A

PAGE 48 OF 52

REVISION 4

(

TVAN Standard

Conduct of Operations

OPDP-1

Department

Rev.OOOa

Procedure

Page 56 of 103

Appendix I

(Page 4 of 5)

Communications

d.

When using the plant PA system:

(1)

Speak slowly and deliberately in a normal tone of voice.

(2)

When announcements of abnormal or emergency conditions are made,

they shall be made at least twice.

(3)

When making announcements for drills or exercises begin and end the

announcement with "This is a Drill."

6.

Plant Telephones

When using Plant telephones:

a.

Identify yourself and watch station.

b.

When trying to make contact with the main Control Room, if the message is of a

routine nature, the sender should hang up when the main Control Room fails to

answer after the fifth ring to avoid unnecessary Control Room noise. The

phone shall be allowed to ring until answered if the information is important to

Operations.

c.

During times when the DO NOT DISTRUB (DND) function has been used by

MCR personnel, follow the directions on the recording as appropriate.

d.

When making announcements for drills or exercises begin and end the

announcement with "This is a Drill."

7.

Radio/phone Communication

Radio/phone usage shall not be allowed in areas where electronic interference with

plant equipment may result.

a.

When making announcements for drills or exercises, begin and end the

announcement with "This is a Drill."

b.

Sender should identify themselves by watch station.

c.

Three way communications should be used.

d.

Clear concise language should be used since radio/phone contact does not

have the advantage of face to face communication.

(

75. RO GENERIC 2.4.8 OOIIMEM/T3///GENERIC 2.4.8//RO/SRO/ll/27/07 RMS

Which ONE of the following describes the use of Event Based procedures during Symptom Based

Emergency Operating Instructions (EOI) execution?

Event Based procedures are

_

A. NOT used during Symptom Based EOI execution .

B. ALWAYS used if equipment or plant status require their implementation.

C~ used ONLY if they do not interfere with EOI implementation.

D. used ONLY if specifically directed by an EOI flowchart step.

KIA Statement:

Emergency Procedures /Plan

2.4.8 Knowledge of how the event-based emergency/abnormal operating procedures are used in

conjunction with the symptom-based EOPs

KIA Justification: This question satisfies the KIA statement by requiring the candidate to demonstrate

knowledge of procedure hiearchy during execution of Emergency Operating Instructions.

References: EOIPM Section O-VIII-A

Level of Knowledge Justification: This question is rated as MEM due to the requirement to recall

or recognize discrete bits of information.

0610 NRC Exam

REFERENCE PROVIDED: None

Plausibility Analysis:

In order to answer this question correctly the candidate must deterine the rules for using Event Based

procedures during EOI execution.

A is incorrect. This is plausible based on the contradiction often found between Event based and

Symptom based guidance. However, their use is permitted under controls circumstances.

8 is incorrect. This is plausible because no specific Event Based procedure is expressly prohibited from

use, however if a conflict exists between the Event based procedure and the EOI, the EOI takes

precedence.

C is correct.

D is incorrect. This is plausible because several EOI steps direct actions in accordance with Event

Based procedures, however it is not a prerequisite to their use.

EOI PROGRAM MANUAL

SECTION O-VIII-A

USER'S GUIDE FOR EMERGENCY OPERATING INSTRUCTIONS

I.

EOI Flowchart Use With Other Plant Procedures

The EOls are entered, based upon specific conditions symptomatic ofemergencies, or

conditions that could degrade into emergencies. Therefore the operator actions, provided

within the EOls, allow the operator to mitigate the consequences ofa broad range of

accidents and multiple equipment failures.

Other procedures, such as AOIs, ARPs, EPIPs, etc., have event specific entry conditions

and may be used to supplement EOls. In some instances the EOIs will direct the

operators to the unit operating procedures (Ols, OOIs, and AOIs) for completion of

specific tasks. Usually, the EOIs direct the operators to specific EOI Appendices. The

Appendices are specific task related procedures written to satisfy directives given within

the EOIs.

Actions that contradict any direction given by the EOls, or reduce the effectiveness of

any directions given by the EOIs, WILL NOT be implemented for any reason.

The exception to this rule are the SSls and AOI-IOO-2. The conditions which cause

entry into the SSls are such that the reliability ofthe information systems required to

execute the EOIs are no longer at a confidence level that would make the EOIs effective.

Any time that the operators must leave the control room, as directed by AOI-lOO-2, the

EOIs shall be exited and AOI-lOO-2shall be used to shut down and cool down the

reactor. The EOls are not designed, or written, to support their use outside ofthe main

control room.

Conditions may arise under Station Blackout (SBO) conditions in which the rate ofRPV

cooldown is reduced, or alternate Heat Capacity Temperature Limit or Pressure

Suppression Pressure curves are appropriate to avoid an unnecessary emergency

depressurization, in order to maintain RCIC injection capability. The TSC staffor an

associated abnormal operating instruction may recommend use ofthese alternate curves,

which have been calculated as part ofEOIPM section 2- or 3-VI-F and -H. These

alternate curves meet the assumptions used within the EOls.

It is recognized that during execution ofthe EOIs the control room will receive

assistance from various support groups. This is especially the case under conditions in

the EPIPs that result in the Technical Support Center (TSC) being staffed. For example,

the TSC may make recommendations regarding when it is best to vent primary

containment, based upon present or predicted meteorological conditions. This would not

contradict the directions provided by the EOIs, but help to meet the intent ofminimizing

radiological releases to the general public.

(

J.

Execution ofEOI Appendixes

The EOIs rely heavily upon the EOI Appendices to implement EPO and PSTO actions

and tasks that are too involved to outline on the flowchart procedure. These tasks

include the defeating ofvarious interlocks and logic systems. The steps within the

Appendices involve the removing of fuses, placing jumpers across terminals, and

placing boots on relay contacts, as well as some ofthe more common functions such as

opening and closing valves and operation of systems to support the EOI flowchart

procedure steps.

SECTION O-VIII-A

PAGE 46 OF 52

REVISION 4