ML13008A086

Examination Report No. 50-188/OL-13-01, Kansas State University

ML13008A086
Person / Time
Site:	Kansas State University
Issue date:	01/10/2013
From:	Bowman G T Division of Policy and Rulemaking
To:	Geuther J Kansas State University
Young P T
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ML12275A381	List: ML12275A389 ML13008A086 ML13009A364
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50-188/03-001
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Text

January 10, 2013

Dr. Jeff Geuther, Director Nuclear Reactor Facility Manager Kansas State University 112 Ward Hall

Manhattan, KS 66506-2500

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-188/OL-13-01, KANSAS STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Geuther:

During the week of December 10, 2012, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered operator licensing examinations at your University of Massachusetts - Lowell reactor. The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed at the conclusion of the examination with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report.

In accordance with Title 10, Section 2.390 of the Code of Federal Regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html (the Public Electronic Reading Room). The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. If you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Phillip T. Young at 301-415-4094 or via electronic mail Phillip.Young@nrc.gov. Sincerely,

/RA/

Gregory T. Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation

Docket No. 50-188

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-188/OL-13-01

2. Facility comments with resolution

3. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc without enclosures: see next page Dr. Jeff Geuther, Director January 10, 2013 Nuclear Reactor Facility Manager

Kansas State University 112 Ward Hall Manhattan, KS 66506-2500

SUBJECT:

EXAMINATION REPORT NO. 50-188/OL-13-01, KANSAS STATE UNIVERSITY

Dear Dr. Geuther:

During the week of December 10, 2012, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) administered operator licensing examinations at your University of Massachusetts - Lowell reactor. The examination was conducted according to NUREG-1478, "Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors," Revision 2. Examination questions and preliminary findings were discussed at the conclusion of the examination with those members of your staff identified in the enclosed report.

In accordance with Title 10, Section 2.390 of the Code of Federal Regulations, a copy of this letter and the enclosures will be available electronically for public inspection in the NRC Public Document Room or from the Publicly Available Records (PARS) component of NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS). ADAMS is accessible from the NRC Web site at http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html (the Public Electronic Reading Room). The NRC is forwarding the individual grades to you in a separate letter which will not be released publicly. If you have any questions concerning this examination, please contact Phillip T. Young at 301-415-4094 or via electronic mail Phillip.Young@nrc.gov. Sincerely,

/RA/

Gregory T. Bowman, Chief Research and Test Reactors Oversight Branch Division of Policy and Rulemaking Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation

Docket No. 50-188

Enclosures:

1. Examination Report No. 50-188/OL-13-01

2. Facility comments with resolution

3. Written examination with facility comments incorporated cc without enclosures: See next page DISTRIBUTION w/ encls.: PUBLIC PROB r/f GBowman Facility File CRevelle (O07-F8)

ADAMS ACCESSION #: ML13008A086 OFFICE PROB:CE IOLB:LA PROB:BC NAME PYoung CRevelle GBowman DATE 1/09/2013 1/08/2013 1/10/2013 OFFICIAL RECORD COPY Kansas State University Docket No. 50-188

cc:

Office of the Governor

State of Kansas

Suite 2415

300 SW 10 th Avenue Topeka, KS 66612-1590

Thomas A. Conley, RRPJ, CHP Section Chief Radiation and Asbestos Control KS Dept of Health & Environment 1000 SW Jackson, Suite 330 Topeka, KS 66612-1365

Mayor of Manhattan P.O. Box 748 Manhattan, KS 66502

Test, Research, and Training

Reactor Newsletter University of Florida 202 Nuclear Sciences Center Gainesville, FL 32611

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION OPERATOR LICENSING INITIAL EXAMINATION REPORT

REPORT NO.: 50-188/OL-13-01

FACILITY DOCKET NO.: 50-188

FACILITY LICENSE NO.: R-88

FACILITY: Kansas State University

SUBMITTED BY: _______________R/A____________ 1/09/2013 Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner Date

SUMMARY

During the week of November 28 2011, the NRC administered license examinations to four Reactor Operator license and one Senior Reactor Operator Upgrade candidates. The Senior Reactor Operator Upgrade candidate passed all applicable portions of the examination. One Reactor Operator candidate failed the written examination and failed the operating test. The remaining three Reactor Operator candidates passed all applicable portions of the examination.

REPORT DETAILS

1. Examiner: Phillip T. Young, Chief Examiner

2. Results: RO PASS/FAIL SRO PASS/FAIL TOTAL PASS/FAIL Written 3/1 0/0 3/1 Operating Tests 3/1 1/0 4/1 Overall 3/1 1/0 4/1

3. Exit Meeting: Phillip T. Young, NRC, Chief Examiner Dr. Jeff Geuther, Director The NRC Examiner thanked the facility for their support in the administration of the examinations. The examiner thanked the facility for their feedback on the written examination. The Examiner discussed applicant weaknesses in Radiation Sources and Hazards, Portable Radiation Monitoring Equipment, and Fuel Handling. Also discussed were applicant weakness in observation skills while at the reactor controls.

ENCLOSURE 1 FACILITY COMMENTS WITH NRC RESOLUTION Question: A.03 Comment: Cherenkov radiation is an effect that occurs when high energy charged particles pass through the pool at a speed which is greater than the speed of light (in water). Therefore answer C, the correct answer per the answer key, is acceptable.

However, "Cherenkov radiation represents energy lost by the particle" to the surrounding medium [Jackson, Classical Electrodynamics , Wiley (1999)]. This makes sense, because the energy observed as the Cher enkov "blue glow" has to come from somewhere, otherwise conservation of energy would be violated. Since charged particles have mass (i.e., unlike photons), they slow down as they lose energy.

Therefore answer B, "It is an effect where high energy, charged particles (e.g. electrons) lose and emit their energy while slowing down through the pool" is also correct. The Facility recommends that both "B" and "C" be accepted as answers to this question.

Justification: See comments above.

NRC Resolution: Facility comment accepted, answers "b" and "c" will be accepted with the grading changed accordingly.

Question: C.03 Comment: The transient rod has a worth of $2.43, versus $1.85 for the shim rod, and is the most reactive rod in the core. The Facility suggests that the correct answer be changed from "D - shim rod" to "B - transient rod."

Justification: See comments above.

NRC Resolution: Facility comment accepted, answer "b" will be accepted as the correct answer with the grading changed accordingly.

Question: C.05 Comment: There is no document that specifies a particular temperature setpoint for the bulk water temperature alarm. The current setpoint is 130 F, higher than the 110 F setpoint listed as the correct answer for this question (D). The actual setpoint of 130 F is not offered as an answer to the question. Therefore the Facility suggests that this question be withdrawn.

Justification: See comments above.

NRC Resolution: Facility comment accepted, question withdrawn from the examination and grading changed accordingly.

ENCLOSURE 2

U. S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION NON-POWER INITIAL REACTOR LICENSE EXAMINATION

FACILITY: Kansas State University

REACTOR TYPE: TRIGA

DATE ADMINISTERED: 11/28/2011

CANDIDATE: _____________________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:

Answers are to be written on the answer sheet provided. Attach the answer sheets to the examination. Points for each question are indicated in brackets for each question. A 70% in each section is required to pass the examination. Examinations will be picked up three (3) hours after the examination starts.

% of Category % of Candidates Category

Value Total Score Value Category 20.00 33.3 A. Reactor Theory, Thermodynamics and Facility Operating Characteristics

19.00 33.3 B. Normal and Emergency Operating Procedures and Radiological Controls 19.00 33.3 C. Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems

58.00  % TOTALS FINAL GRADE

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid.

______________________________________ Candidate's Signature

ENCLOSURE 3 NRC RULES AND GUIDELINES FOR LICENSE EXAMINATIONS

During the administration of this examination the following rules apply:

1. Cheating on the examination means an automatic denial of your application and could result in more severe penalties.

2. After the examination has been completed, you must sign the statement on the cover sheet indicating that the work is your own and you have neither received nor given assistance in completing the examination.

This must be done after you complete the examination.

3. Restroom trips are to be limited and only one candidate at a time may leave. You must avoid all contacts with anyone outside the examination room to avoid even the appearance or possibility of cheating.

4. Use black ink or dark pencil only to facilitate legible reproductions.

5. Print your name in the blank provided in the upper right-hand corner of the examination cover sheet and each answer sheet.

6. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. USE ONLY THE PAPER PROVIDED AND DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE PAGE.

7. The point value for each question is indicated in [brackets] after the question.

8. If the intent of a question is unclear, ask questions of the examiner only.

9. When turning in your examination, assemble the completed examination with examination questions, examination aids and answer sheets. In addition turn in all scrap paper.

10. Ensure all information you wish to have evaluated as part of your answer is on your answer sheet. Scrap paper will be disposed of immediately following the examination.

11. To pass the examination you must achieve a grade of 70 percent or greater in each category.

12. There is a time limit of three (3) hours for completion of the examination.

13. When you have completed and turned in you examination, leave the examination area. If you are observed in this area while the examination is still in progress, your license may be denied or revoked.

EQUATION SHEET's úQúmc pTúmHUAT Pmax()2 2(k) 1 x 104seconds eff0.1seconds1 SCRSS 1Keff CR 1 (1Keff 1)CR 2 (1K eff 2)CR 1 (1)CR 2 (2) SUR26.06eff M1K eff 0 1K eff 1 M1 1KeffCR 1 CR 2 PP 0 10SUR (t) PP 0 e t P(1)P 0 SDM(1K eff)Keff EQUATION SHEET's ø øeff Keff 2K eff 1 keff 1xK eff 2 T1/20.6 93 (Keff1)K eff DRDR 0 et DR6CiE (n)R 2 DR 1 d 1 2DR 2 d 2 2 (2)2Peak 2(1)2Peak 1 EQUATION SHEET's DR - Rem, Ci - curies, E - Mev, R - feet

1 Curie = 3.7 x 10 10 dis/sec 1 kg = 2.21 lbm 1 Horsepower = 2.54 x 10 3 BTU/hr 1 Mw = 3.41 x 10 6 BTU/hr 1 BTU = 778 ft-lbf

~F = 9/5 ~C + 32 1 gal (H 2 O) 8 lbm

~C = 5/9 (~F - 32) c P = 1.0 BTU/hr/lbm/

~F c p = 1 cal/sec/gm/

~C

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.001 [1.00 point] (1.0) The Moderating Ratio measures the effectiveness of a moderator by combining the scattering cross section, the absorption cross section, and the average energy loss per collision. The Moderating Ratio is expressed as:

a. (absorption cross section)x(scattering cross section)/(average energy loss per collision). b. (absorption cross section)x(average energy loss per collision)/(scattering cross section). c. (scattering cross section)x(absorption cross section)x(average energy loss per collision). d. (average energy loss per collision)x(scattering cross section)/(absorption cross section).

Answer: A.001 D.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 2, Neutron Moderation, page 28.

Question A.002 [1.0 point] (2.0) The following shows part of a decay chain for the radioactive element Radon (Rn). This decay chain is a good example of ___ decay.

a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Neutron Answer: A.02 a.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2 3.8 d Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.003 [1.0 point] (3.0) You are poolside at the reactor conducting a tour when someone from the group asks what the "blue glow" around the reactor is within the pool. Which of the following would be the most correct response?

a. It is binding energy released directly through chain reactions of the fission process

b. It is an effect where high energy, charged particles (e.g., electrons) lose and emit their energy while slowing down through the pool

c. It is an effect when high energy, charged particles (e.g., electrons) pass through the pool at a speed which is greater than the speed of light

d. It is the energy release from the interaction between a neutrino and antineutrino which is known as pair annihilation.

Answer: A.03 b. or c. per facility comment

Reference:

PSBR Training Manual, Chapter 1.8 "Bremstrahlung and Cerenkov Effect"

Question A.004 [1.0 point] (4.0) A nuclear reactor startup is being performed by adding equal amounts of positive reactivity and waiting for neutron population to stabilize. As the reactor approaches criticality, the numerical change in stable neutron population after each reactivity addition __________, and the time required for the neutron population to stabilize after each reactivity addition ___________.

a. increases; remains the same b. increases; increases c. remains the same; remains the same d. remains the same; increases Answer: A.04 b.

Reference:

Question ID #P1766, NRC Generic Fundamentals Examination Question Bank-PWR2010

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.005 [1.0 point] (5.0) Which ONE of the following statements is the most correct regarding a characteristic of subcritical multiplication?

a. The number of neutrons gained per generation doubles for each succeeding generation.

b. A constant neutron population is achieved when the total number of neutrons produced in one generation is equal to the number of source neutrons in the next generation.

c. For equal reactivity additions, it takes less time for the equilibrium subcritical neutron population level to be reached as K eff approaches one.

d. Doubling the indicated power will reduce the margin to criticality by approximately one-half. Answer: A.5 d. 1 2 2 1 1 1 k k CR CR= If CR 2 is twice CR 1, then to be equal, (1-Keff

2) must be half of (1-Keff 1). Reference. DOE Handbook, Vol 2, Section 2.0

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.006 [1.0 point] (6.0) Given the following diagram, which of the following most correctly describe the condition of the reactor?

a. The prompt jump occurs because the production rate of delayed neutrons abruptly changes as reactivity is added.

b. At T=15s, the reactor is considered prompt critical.

c. After the prompt jump, the rate of change of power cannot increase any more rapidly than the built-in time delay the neutron precursor half-lives allow.

d. Shortly after T=0s, the reactor power is immediately turned due to the rise in moderator temperature.

Answer: A.06 c.

Reference:

PSBR Training Manual, Chapter 2.22

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.007 [1.0 point] (7.0) Given a critical nuclear reactor operating below the point of adding heat (POAH), what reactivity effects are associated with reaching the POAH?

a. There are no reactivity effects because the reactor is critical. b. The increase in fuel temperature will begin to create a positive reactivity effect. c. The decrease in fuel temperature will begin to create a negative reactivity effect. d. The increase in fuel temperature will begin to create a negative reactivity effect.

Answer: A.07 d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Question A.008 [1.0 point] (8.0) Which one of the following most correctly completes the following as the reason for having an installed neutron source within the core?

A startup without an installed neutron source...

a. could result in a very short period due to the reactor going critical before neutron population built up high enough to be read on nuclear instrumentation.

b. is impossible as there would be no neutrons available to start up the reactor.

c. would be very slow due to the long time to build up neutron population from so low a level. d. can be compensated for by adjusting the compensating voltage on the source range detector.

A.8 Answer: a

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Question A.009 [1.0 point] (9.0) Which ONE of the following conditions will INCREASE the core excess of a nuclear reactor?

a. Higher moderator temperature (assume negative temperature coefficient) b. Insertion of a negative reactivity worth experiment

c. Burnout of a burnable poison d. Fuel depletion

Answer: A.09 c

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics & Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.010 [1.0 point] (10.0) A reactor is subcritical by 5% delta k/k with a count rate of 100 cps on the startup channel. Rods are withdrawn until the count rate is 1000 cps. Which ONE of the following is the condition of the reactor following the rod withdrawal?

a. Critical with k eff = 1.000. b. Subcritical with k eff = 0.995. c. Subcritical with k eff = 0.950. d. Supercritical with k eff = 1.005.

Answer: A.010 b.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 4, Subcritical Multiplication, page 6. CR 1 (1-K 1) = CR 2 (1-K 2); = (K -1)/K; -0.05 = (K - 1)/K; K = 0.952. 100(1 - 0.952) = 1000(1 - K 2); K 2 = 0.995.

Question A.011 [1.0 point] (11.0) The fuel temperature coefficient of reactivity is -1.25x10

-4 delta K/K/deg.C. When a control rod with an average rod worth of 0.1% delta K/K/inch is withdrawn 10 inches, reactor power increases and becomes stable at a higher level. At this point, the fuel temperature has:

a. increased by 80 deg C. b. decreased by 80 deg C. c. increased by 8 deg C. d. decreased by 8 deg C.

Answer: A.011 a.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook, Module 3, Reactivity, page 21. Control rod inserts positive reactivity = 0.001delta k/k/inch x 10 inches

+0.01 delta k/k. Fuel temperature inserts negative reactivity

-1.25x10-4 delta k/k/deg.C x 80 deg.C = -0.01 delta k/k.

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.012 [1.0 point] (12.0) Given the associated graph, which of the following answers best describe the neutron behavior

within Region II?

a. The neutron cross section is inversely proportional to the neutron

velocity (1/V)

b. The neutron cross section decreases steadily with increasing neutron energy (1/E).

c. Neutrons of specific energy levels (e.g., 50 ev, 100 kev) have a greater potential for leakage from the reactor core

d. Neutrons of specific energy levels (e.g., 50 ev, 100 kev) are more likely to be readily absorbed than neutrons at other energy levels.

Answer: A.12 d.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Question A.013 [1.0 point] (13.0) The effective neutron multiplication factor, K eff, for a critical reactor is: a. Equal to . b. Equal to 1.

c. Equal to the effective delayed neutron fraction.

d. Any value < 1.

Answer: A.13 b.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.014 [1.0 point] (14.0) ________________ releases the most amount of energy during an average fission event. a. Fission product recoil

b. Fission product decay

c. Fast neutrons

d. Prompt gammas Answer:

A.14 a

Reference:

PSBR Training Manual, Chapter 2 "Principles of Reactor Operation", p.2

Question A.015 [1.0 point] (15.0) Using the associated graph which of the following best describes what happens to the concentration of Xenon (Xe)-135 from point A to B?

a. The concentration of Iodine-135 was at a higher equilibrium level at 100% power and is therefore producing Xe-135 at a higher rate until it reaches a maximum value 7-8 hours later.

b. The concentration of Xe-135 reaches a maximum value 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> after the down power transient and will decrease to a new, higher equilibrium value until it reaches a maximum value equilibrium

c. The insertion of control rods displaces the axial reactor flux causing an increased production rate of xenon gas until it reaches a maximum value 7-8 hours after the down power transient.

d. The decay rate of fission product, Cesium-135 increases due to the down power transient which increases the concentration of Xe-135 to a maximum value 40 hours4.62963e-4 days <br />0.0111 hours <br />6.613757e-5 weeks <br />1.522e-5 months <br /> later.

Answer: A.15 a

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics & Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.016 [1.0 point] (16.0) You are the reactor operator performing two pulsing operations. The first pulse had a reactivity

worth of $1.50 which resulted in a peak power of 250 MW. If the second pulse had a reactivity worth of $2.00, what was the corresponding peak power?

Given: =0.0070 a. 375 MW b. 750 MW c. 1000 MW d. 1200 MW A.16 Answer: c $prompt = - where = $1.00 of reactivity P 1=250 MW 1=$0.50 P 2=X 2=$1.00 (250 MW)/(0.5) 2=(x)(1)2= 1000MW

Reference:

Reactor Physics of Pulsing: Fuchs-Hansen Adiabatic Model http://www.rcp.ijs.si/ric/pulse_operation-s.html

Question A.017 [1.0 point] (17.0)

A reactor with K eff = 0.8 contributes 1000 neutrons in the first generation. When progressing from the FIRST generation to the SECOND generation, how many TOTAL neutrons are there after the SECOND generation?

a. 1250 b. 1600

c. 1800

d. 2000 Answer: A.17 c

Reference:

Burn, R., Introduction to Nuclear Reactor Operations, © 1982, § 5.3, p. 5.6 2nd generation=n + K*n=1000+800=1800 neutrons

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question A.018 [1.0 point] (18.0) Refer to the associated figure which includes drawings for three 1/M plots labeled A, B,and C.

Plot B shows an ideal approach to criticality. Therefore, the least conservative approach to criticality is represented by plot _____ and could possibly be the result of recording count rates at ________ time intervals after incremental fuel loading steps compared to the situations represented by the other plots.

a. A; shorter

b. A; longer c. C; shorter d. C; longer Answer: A.18 c.

Reference:

PSU Training Manual, Section 2.7 "Critical Mass Experiment"

Question A.019 [1.0 point] (19.0) A reactor pool contains 106, 000 gallons of water at 90 degrees F, and it heats up to 93 degrees F in two hours. Assuming no ambient losses, the calculated reactor power level is ______.

a. 93 kW. b. 259 kW.

c. 389 kW.

d. 777 kW.

Answer: A.19 c Power = mcT/t , where: m=106,000 gallons x 8.34 lbs/gal = 884,040 lb; c=1 Btu/

~F-lb; T/t = 1.5 degrees/hour. Power = 1,326,060 Btu/hour; 3413 Btu/hour = 1 kW. Power = 1,326,060/3413 = 389 kW

Reference:

Section A - Reactor Theory, Thermo & Facility Operating Characteristics Question deleted during examination - diagram was not included in applicant examination package. Question A.020 [1.0 point]

(20.0) QUESTION A.20 [1.0 point]

The associated diagram depicts the profile of reactor power vs. time for a down power evolution. Which of the following answers best describes reactor power as it transitions from point A to B?

See diagram on next page.

a. The moderator temperature coefficient adds positive reactivity in order to slow the rate of the down power.

b. The rate of power change is slowed and approaches the rate determined by the longest lived neutron precursor.

c. The rate of power decrease is slowed as the decay rate of iodine

-135 is faster than the decay rate of xenon

-135. d. Doppler broadening effects from U

-238 in the fuel increases the probability of absorption which reduces the rate of power decrease, Answer: A.20 b.

Reference:

DOE Fundamentals Handbook Nuclear Physics and Reactor Theory Vol. 2

Section B- Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.001 [1.00 point] (1.0) Which ONE of the following statements is a condition for pulsing the KSU reactor?

a. In the Pulse mode, the reactor must be operated with a standard fuel TRIGA fuel element in the central thimble.

b. The fuel elements must be gauged after every pulse of magnitude greater than $1.00.

c. Pulsing operations must not be done from a subcritical configuration.

d. The peak fuel temperature of each pulse must be measured.

Answer: B.001 d.

Reference:

Experiment 23.

Question B.002 [1.00 point] (2.0) What is the minimum exposure monitoring requirement for an escorted visiting group in the reactor bay?

a. 1 TLD badge per person. b. 2 TLD badges for every 10 members of the group. c. 2 pocket dosimeters for every 15 members of the group. d. 1 neutron-gamma sensitive pocket dosimeter for the tour guide.

Answer: B.02 c.

Reference:

Procedure No. 9.

Question B.003 [1.00 point] (3.0) An irradiated sample having a half-life of 3 minutes provides a dose rate of 200 mrem/hr at 3 ft.

Approximately how far from the sample must a Radiation Area sign be posted?

a. 6 ft. b. 12 ft.

c. 18 ft. d. 36 ft.

Answer: B.003 c.

Reference:

Radiation Protection Program, page A-9. Radiation area > 5 mrem/hour. 200 mrem at 3 feet -> 5 mrem at 18.3 feet.

Section B- Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.004 [1.00 point] (4.0) A foreign object is accidentally dropped into the reactor tank while the reactor is operating. The Reactor Supervisor is not immediately available. The reactor operator must:

a. direct another individual to try to remove the object by grappling hooks, vacuum line or other "fishing" tools.

b. immediately notify the Radiation Safety Officer.

c. declare an Unusual Event.

d. shut down the reactor.

Answer: B.04 d.

Reference:

Experiment No. 1.

Question B.005 [1.00 point] (5.0) If an evacuation is required, it must be verified complete within: a. 3 minutes b. 10 minutes

c. 15 minutes d. 30 minutes

Answer: B.05 d.

Reference:

KSU Exam Bank

Question B.006 [1.00 point] (6.0) The "evacuation alarm" sounds when radiation levels [A] exceed [B]. a. [A] control room [B] 1 R/h

b. [A] 12-foot level [B] 10 mR/h c. [A] 0-foot level [B] 1,000 mR/h d. [A] 22-foot level [B] 5 R/h Answer: B.06 d.

Reference:

KSU Exam Bank

Section B- Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.007 [1.00 point] (7.0) Select the MINIMUM radiation level that will actuate the evacuation alarm. a. 1.7 R/hr

b. 5.8 R/hr

c. 8.2 R/hr

d. 12.1 R/hr Answer: B.07 b.

Reference:

KSU Exam Bank

Question B.008 [1.00 point] (8.0) To ensure the occupational radiation limits for workers are kept within ALARA goals, KSU administratively limits the total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) for workers to:

a. 50 mRem/month. b. 1.25 Rem/qtr.

c. 500 mRem/yr. d. 3 Rem/yr.

Answer: B.08 c.

Reference:

KSU Exam Bank

Question B.009 [1.00 point] (9.0) In accordance with Procedure No. 2, "Annual Power Level Calibration," after power level has

been determined:

a. the linear power channel meter and recorder are adjusted to give the correct power indication.

b. the high voltage to the linear power channel detector is adjusted to give the correct power indication.

c. the compensating voltage of the compensated ion chamber is adjusted to give the proper power indication.

d. the position of the compensated ion chamber is adjusted to give the proper power indication.

Answer: B.09 d.

Reference:

Procedure No. 2.

Section B- Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.010 [1.0 point, 0.25 each] (10.0) Match the type of radiation in column A with its associated Quality Factor (10CFR20) from

column B.

Column A Column B

a. alpha 1 b. beta 2 c. gamma 5

d. neutron (unknown energy) 10 20

Answer: B.010 a. = 20; b. = 1; c. = 1; d. = 10

Reference:

10CFR20.100x

Question B.011 [1.0 point, 0.25 each] (11.0) Match the terms in column A with their respective definitions in column B.

Column A Column B

a. Radioactivity 1. The thickness of a material which will reduce a gamma flux by a factor of two.

b. Contamination

2. An impurity which pollutes or adulterates another

c. Dose substance. In radiological safety, contamination refers to the radioactive materials which are the d. Half-thickness sources of ionizing radiations.

3. The quantity of radiation absorbed per unit mass by the body or by any portion of the body.

4. That property of a substance which causes it to emit ionizing radiation. This property is the spontaneous transmutation of the atoms of the substance.

Answer: B.11 a. = 4; b. = 2; c. = 3; d. = 1

Reference:

Standard NRC question

Section B- Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.012 [1.0 point] (12.0) When the reactor is operating, no person may enter the reactor bay: a. unless he/she has signed in the log book.

b. when a beam port or thermal column is open.

c. without the permission of the senior reactor operator.

d. without the permission of the reactor operator on duty at the console.

Answer: B.12 d.

Reference:

Procedure No. 9, page 1.

Question B.013 [1.0 point] (13.0) In accordance with the KSU Fitness for Duty policy, which ONE of the following statements is NOT true?

a. An arrest for possession or distribution of a controlled substance will result in the permanent loss of access to the Nuclear Reactor Facility.

b. Extended use of prescription or over-the-counter drugs is to be reported to the examining physician during employment physicals.

c. Consumption of alcohol during an abstinence period need not necessarily preclude responding to an emergency.

d. Consumption of alcohol is prohibited for 5 hours5.787037e-5 days <br />0.00139 hours <br />8.267196e-6 weeks <br />1.9025e-6 months <br /> preceding any scheduled activity within the facility.

Answer: B.13 a.

Reference:

Training Manual, page A6-1.

Question B.014 [1.0 point] (14.0) Based on the Requalification Plan fo r licensed personnel, each licensed operator must complete a minimum of ______ reactivity manipulations during each 2 year cycle.

a. 5 b. 6

c. 10 d. 12 Answer: B.14 c.

Reference:

Requalification Program --- License R-88, Chapter 3 Continuing Activities, § 3.1

Section B- Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.015 [1.0 point] (15.0) Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the Safety Limit (SL) and the Limiting Safety System Setting (LSSS)?

a. The SL is a maximum operationally limit ing value that prevents exceeding the LSSS during normal operations.

b. The SL is a parameter that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The LSSS initiates protective actions to preclude reaching the SL.

c. The SL is a maximum setpoint for instrumentation response. The LSSS is the minimum number of channels required to be operable.

d. The LSSS is a parameter that assures the integrity of the fuel cladding. The SL initiates protective action to preclude reaching the LSSS.

Answer: B.015 b.

Reference:

Standard NRC question on Safety Limits

Question B.016 [1.0 point] (16.0) You initially remove a sample from the pool reading 1 R/hr at 30 cm from the source. You then replace the sample in the pool. An hour later you remove the sample and the reading is now 390 mR/hr at 30 cm. You again replace the sample back in the pool. How much longer should you wait to be able to bring out the sample without generating a high radiation area?

a. 1/2 hour b. 1 hour1.157407e-5 days <br />2.777778e-4 hours <br />1.653439e-6 weeks <br />3.805e-7 months <br />

c. 11/2 hours

d. 3 hours3.472222e-5 days <br />8.333333e-4 hours <br />4.960317e-6 weeks <br />1.1415e-6 months <br /> Answer: B.016 c.

Reference:

I t = I 0 e-t 390 mR/hr ÷ 1000 mR/hr = e

-1hr ln(0.39) = -

• 1 hr. = 0.9416 hour-1 SOLVING for additional time: If = I t e-t 100mR/hr = 390 mR/hr e-0.9416 (time) ln (0.25) = -0.9163

• time time = 1.4454 hours0.0516 days <br />1.237 hours <br />0.00736 weeks <br />0.00169 months <br />

Section B- Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.017 [1.0 point] (17.0) The OPERATIONS BOUNDARY is defined as: a. Room 110 of Ward Hall.

b. Ward Hall and adjacent fenced areas.

c. Facility Control Center.

d. Nuclear Engineering Departmental Office.

Answer: B.017 a.

Reference:

Emergency Plan, section 1.1.

Question B.018 [1.0 point] (18.0) Which ONE of the following statements describes a reactivity limitation imposed on experiments?

a. The absolute reactivity worth of all experiments in the reactor shall not exceed $2.00.

b. An experiment which will not cause a 20-second period can be inserted in the core when the reactor is at power.

c. When determining the absolute reactivity worth of an experiment, the reactivity effects associated with the moderator temperature is to be considered.

d. No experiment shall be inserted or removed unless all control blades are fully inserted.

Answer: B.018 a.

Reference:

Technical Specifications, I.3(a).

Question B.019 [1.0 point] (19.0) Which ONE of the following interlocks, according to Technical Specifications, may be bypassed during fuel loading operations?

a. Movement of any rod except the transient rod.

b. Shim and regulating rod withdrawal with less than two counts per second on the start-up channel. c. Simultaneous manual withdrawal of two rods.

d. Application of air to the transient rods unless regulating and shim rods are fully inserted.

Answer: B.019 b.

Reference:

Technical Specifications, Table II Section B- Normal, Emergency and Radiological Control Procedures Question B.020 [1.0 point] (20.0) In accordance with the Technical Specifications, which ONE condition below is NOT permissible when the reactor is operating?

a. Maximum available reactivity above cold, clean condition = $4.00. b. Primary water temperature = 110 deg. F. c. Pool water conductivity = 2 micromho/cm. d. Fuel temperature = 400 deg. C.

Answer: B.20 a.

Reference:

KSU Technical Specifications KSU Procedure 15, Attachment 1: Daily Checkout

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.001 [1 point] (1.0) A high reactor sump level light concurrent with a bulk water alarm might mean which of the following:

a. Fuel element failure b. Loss of reactor pool water c. Secondary coolant system leakage d. Humidity in the reactor bay (HVCA condensate)

Answer: C.001 b.

Reference:

KSU exam bank

Question C.002 [1 point] (2.0) Which of the following controls the amount of reactivity that is inserted by the transient rod during pulse operations?

a. The position of the cylinder b. The timer setting that vents the pneumatic piston

c. The pressure of the air applied to the pneumatic piston d. The initial power level of the reactor prior to firing the pulse

Answer: C.002 a.

Reference:

KSU exam bank

Question C.003 [1 point] (3.0) Which of the following is the most reactive rod in the KSU core? a. Regulating Rod

b. Transient Rod c. Safety Rod d. Shim Rod Answer: C.003 d.

b. per facility comment

Reference:

KSU exam bank

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.004 [1 point] (4.0) What is the maximum fuel temperature that is expected to occur from an inadvertent reactivity addition?

a. Approximately 760° C when starting from zero power, approximately 890° C when starting from power operations

b. Approximately 200° C above ambient air temperature

c. Cannot be determined from the available information

d. 5300° F Answer: C.004 a.

Reference:

KSU exam bank

Question C.005 [1 point] (5.0) Deleted per facility comment The Bulk Water Tank will alarm the annunciator:

a. when pool water reaches the Technical Specification limit

b. when the bulk shield tank level is high

c. alarms with a buzzer on the 22 foot level

d. alarms at 110 F

Answer: C.005 d.

Reference:

KSU exam bank

Question C.006 [1.0 points 0.25 each] {6.0} Which ONE of the Nuclear Instrumentation channels/circuits listed below does NOT provide an input to the Regulating Rod Automatic Control circuit?

a. Nuclear Multi-Range Power Channel (NMP-1000) b. Nuclear Power Pulse Channel (NPP-1000) c. Nuclear Log Wide Range Channel (NLWR-1000) d. Percent Demand Potentiometer Answer: C.06 b.

Reference:

Procedure No. 23 Automatic Flux Control System

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.007 [1.0 point] {7.0} WHICH ONE of the following detectors is used primarily to measure Ar 41 released to the environment?

a. The Continuous Air Radiation Monitor at the 12 foot level. b. NONE, Ar 41 has too short a half-life to require environmental monitoring. c. The Noble Gas Channel of the Air Monitoring System located above the pool. d. The Particulate Channel of the Air Monitoring System located above the pool.

Answer: C.07 c.

Reference:

SAR § 7.7, Figure 7.15.

Question C.008 [1.0 point] {8.0} Which ONE of the following is the flow through the primary loop and the cleanup loop? a. 120 gpm total flow with 10 gpm through the cleanup loop b. 110 gpm total flow with 10 gpm through the cleanup loop c. 120 gpm total flow with 20 gpm through the cleanup loop d. 110 gpm total flow with 20 gpm through the cleanup loop

Answer: C.08 b.

Reference:

SAR Section 5.2 and 5.4

Question C.009 [1.0 point] {9.0} WHICH ONE of the following detectors is used primarily to measure N 16 released to the environment?

a. NONE, N 16 has too short a half-life to require environmental monitoring. b. Stack Gas Monitor c. Air Particulate Monitor d. Area Radiation Monitor above pool Answer: C.09 a.

Reference:

Standard NRC Question

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.010 [1.0 point] {10.0} Which one of the following correctly describes the operation of a Thermocouple?

a. A bi-metallic strip which winds/unwinds due to different thermal expansion constants for the two metals, one end is fixed and the other moves a lever proportional to the temperature change.

b. a junction of two dissimilar metals, generating a potential (voltage) proportional to temperature changes.

c. a precision wound resistor, placed in a Wheatstone bridge, the resistance of the resistor varies proportionally to temperature changes.

d. a liquid filled container which expands and contracts proportional to temperature changes, one part of which is connected to a lever.

Answer: C.10 b.

Reference:

Standard NRC Question

Question C.011 [1.0 point] {11.0} Upon receipt of a scram signal with the automatic flux control system engaged, the regulating rod - a. magnet is de-energized, the rod falls into the core, and the drive is automatically driven in.

b. and drive remain where they are, and both must be manually driven into the core.

c. and drive both automatically drive into the core.

d. magnet is de-energized, the rod falls into the core, but the drive must be manually driven into the core.

Answer: C.11 d.

Reference:

Standard NRC Question

Question C.012 [1.0 point] {12.0} What is the normal rod motion speed? a. 16 inches per minute b. 14 inches per minute

c. 12 inches per minute d. 10 inches per minute

Answer: C.12 c.

Reference:

KSU Facility Description page A.1.21

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.013 [1.0 point] {13.0} The shim rod and the regulating rod are constructed of: a. graphite with aluminum cladding.

b. boron and carbon with aluminum cladding.

c. cadmium with aluminum cladding.

d. graphite and boron with aluminum cladding.

Answer: C.13 b.

Reference:

Training Manual, page A1-6.

Question C.014 [1.0 point] {14.0} The central thimble is an aluminum tube extending from the top of the reactor tank and terminating:

a. below the bottom grid plate. b. at the bottom grid plate. c. at the midpoint of the core. d. at the top grid plate.

Answer: C.14 a.

Reference:

Training Manual, page A1-7.

Question C.015 [1.0 point] {15.0} The purpose of the diffuser above the core during operation is to: a. reduce dose rate at the pool surface from N-16.

b. enhance heat transfer across all fuel elements in the core.

c. better distribute heat throughout the pool.

d. ensure consistent water chemistry in the pool.

Answer: C.15 a.

Reference:

SAR, page 5-10.

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.016 [1.0 point] {16.0} The flow rate in the primary loop is maintained by which ONE of the following methods? a. A flow orifice in the primary piping.

b. Adjustment of the filter pressure drop.

c. Adjustment of primary pump speed.

d. Throttling the discharge valve of the primary pump.

Answer: C.16 a.

Reference:

Training Manual, page A1-10.

Question C.017 [1.0 points, 0.125 each] {17.0} Identify the components labeled a through h on the figure of a Control Blade Drive Mechanism provided. (Note: Items are used only once. Only one answer per letter.)

See figure on last page of Section C.

a. ___ 1. Foot b. ___ 2. Barrel c. ___ 3. Position Potentiometer

d. ___ 4. Rod Down Limit Switch

e. ___ 5. Drive Motor

f. ___ 6. Pull Rod g. ___ 7. Armature h. ___ 8. Magnet Answer: C.17 a. = 4; b. = 3; c. = 5; d. = 2; e. = 8; f. = 6; g. = 7; h. = 1

Reference:

KSU Facility Description page A.1.19

Question deleted by the examiner during the examination.

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems Question C.018 [1.0 points, 0.25 each] {18.0} Match the purification system conditions listed in column A with their respective causes listed in column B. Each choice is used only once.

Column A Column B

a. High Radiation Level at demineralizer. 1. Channeling in demineralizer.

b. High Radiation Level downstream of demineralizer. 2. Fuel element failure.

c. High flow rate through demineralizer. 3. High temperature in demineralizer system

d. High pressure upstream of demineralizer. 4. Clogged demineralizer

Answer: C.18 a. = 2; b. = 3; c. = 1; d. = 4;

Reference:

Standard NRC cleanup loop question

Question C.019 [1.0 point] {19.0} Per technical specifications which ONE of the following safety system functions must be operable for both steady-state and pulsing operations?

a. Reactor Power Level Scram b. Pulse Rod Interlock c. Manual Scram Bar d. Control Rod (standard) Position Interlock

Answer: C.19 c.

Reference:

Technical Specification 3.4 Safety and Control Rod Operability,

Question C.020 [1.0 point] {20.0} The water monitor vessel contains: a. a temperature probe, a pressure probe, and a GM tube.

b. a temperature probe, a conductivity probe, and a pressure probe.

c. a conductivity probe, a pressure probe, and a GM tube. d. a conductivity probe, a temperature probe, and a GM tube.

Answer: C.20 d.

Reference:

Training Manual, page A1-10

Section C Facility and Radiation Monitoring Systems