ML25086A094
| ML25086A094 | |
| Person / Time | |
|---|---|
| Site: | Grand Gulf  |
| Issue date: | 02/04/2025 |
| From: | Kelly Clayton NRC Region 4 |
| To: | Hargrove G Entergy Operations |
| References | |
| Download: ML25086A094 (1) | |
Text
ExamItem Analysis Report Exams Graded: 12 Instructor:
Total Possible:
75 Class Average:
62.5 - 83.33%
Exam Name:
Highest Score:
69 - 92.00%
Class Median:
62.0 - 82.67%
Exam Date:
Tuesday, February 4, 2025 Lowest Score:
55 - 73.33%
Cronbach's Alpha:
0.564 Class ID:
KR20:
0.564 Correct answers are shown in bold and italics Percent Incorrect Correct Biserial Point Multiples Blanks Report Run Date: 2/5/2025 11:55 AM Página 1 Q 1 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 2 A (0, 0.0%)
B (12, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 3 A (2, 16.7%)
B (10, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.05 10, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 4 A (2, 16.7%)
B (6, 50.0%)
C (2, 16.7%)
D (2, 16.7%)
0.28 6, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 5 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 6 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 7 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 8 A (4, 33.3%)
B (8, 66.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.67 8, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 9 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (1, 8.3%)
-0.25 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 10 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (1, 8.3%)
0.53 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 11 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 50.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 50.0%)
0.59 6, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 12 A (2, 16.7%)
B (10, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.48 10, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 13 A (12, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 14 A (11, 91.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.25 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 15 A (11, 91.7%)
B (1, 8.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.04 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 16 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (12, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 17 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (11, 91.7%)
0.11 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 18 A (1, 8.3%)
B (2, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (9, 75.0%)
-0.16 9, 75.0%
25.0%
Q 19 A (10, 83.3%)
B (2, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.16 10, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 20 A (0, 0.0%)
B (4, 33.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (8, 66.7%)
0.33 8, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 21 A (12, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 22 A (12, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 23 A (2, 16.7%)
B (10, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.26 10, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 24 A (0, 0.0%)
B (11, 91.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 8.3%)
-0.32 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 25 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (3, 25.0%)
D (9, 75.0%)
0.34 9, 75.0%
25.0%
Q 26 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (12, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 27 A (0, 0.0%)
B (10, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (2, 16.7%)
0.74 10, 83.3%
16.7%
ExamItem Analysis Report Exams Graded: 12 Instructor:
Total Possible:
75 Class Average:
62.5 - 83.33%
Exam Name:
Highest Score:
69 - 92.00%
Class Median:
62.0 - 82.67%
Exam Date:
Tuesday, February 4, 2025 Lowest Score:
55 - 73.33%
Cronbach's Alpha:
0.564 Class ID:
KR20:
0.564 Correct answers are shown in bold and italics Percent Incorrect Correct Biserial Point Multiples Blanks Report Run Date: 2/5/2025 11:55 AM Página 2 Q 28 A (0, 0.0%)
B (11, 91.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 8.3%)
0.46 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 29 A (3, 25.0%)
B (2, 16.7%)
C (6, 50.0%)
D (1, 8.3%)
0.35 6, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 30 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 31 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 8.3%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.46 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 32 A (0, 0.0%)
B (12, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 33 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 34 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (1, 8.3%)
0.32 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 35 A (6, 50.0%)
B (6, 50.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.04 6, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 36 A (6, 50.0%)
B (5, 41.7%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.08 6, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 37 A (1, 8.3%)
B (2, 16.7%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (8, 66.7%)
-0.33 8, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 38 A (1, 8.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (11, 91.7%)
0.46 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 39 A (0, 0.0%)
B (11, 91.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 8.3%)
0.46 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 40 A (0, 0.0%)
B (11, 91.7%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.32 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 41 A (12, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 42 A (0, 0.0%)
B (12, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 43 A (0, 0.0%)
B (8, 66.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (4, 33.3%)
0.46 8, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 44 A (8, 66.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (4, 33.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.58 4, 33.3%
66.7%
Q 45 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 46 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (12, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 47 A (12, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 48 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 8.3%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.53 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 49 A (11, 91.7%)
B (1, 8.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.46 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 50 A (1, 8.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.32 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 51 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (11, 91.7%)
0.32 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 52 A (3, 25.0%)
B (9, 75.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.30 9, 75.0%
25.0%
Q 53 A (1, 8.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.11 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 54 A (8, 66.7%)
B (3, 25.0%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.08 8, 66.7%
33.3%
ExamItem Analysis Report Exams Graded: 12 Instructor:
Total Possible:
75 Class Average:
62.5 - 83.33%
Exam Name:
Highest Score:
69 - 92.00%
Class Median:
62.0 - 82.67%
Exam Date:
Tuesday, February 4, 2025 Lowest Score:
55 - 73.33%
Cronbach's Alpha:
0.564 Class ID:
KR20:
0.564 Correct answers are shown in bold and italics Percent Incorrect Correct Biserial Point Multiples Blanks Report Run Date: 2/5/2025 11:55 AM Página 3 Q 55 A (0, 0.0%)
B (2, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (10, 83.3%)
-0.32 10, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 56 A (12, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 57 A (2, 16.7%)
B (10, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.32 10, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 58 A (5, 41.7%)
B (2, 16.7%)
C (5, 41.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.02 5, 41.7%
58.3%
Q 59 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 8.3%)
C (4, 33.3%)
D (7, 58.3%)
0.13 4, 33.3%
66.7%
Q 60 A (6, 50.0%)
B (1, 8.3%)
C (3, 25.0%)
D (2, 16.7%)
0.47 6, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 61 A (11, 91.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.04 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 62 A (3, 25.0%)
B (9, 75.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.66 9, 75.0%
25.0%
Q 63 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 64 A (0, 0.0%)
B (12, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 65 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 8.3%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (10, 83.3%)
0.11 10, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 66 A (9, 75.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (3, 25.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.57 9, 75.0%
25.0%
Q 67 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (1, 8.3%)
0.46 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 68 A (3, 25.0%)
B (3, 25.0%)
C (6, 50.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.71 6, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 69 A (1, 8.3%)
B (10, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 8.3%)
0.42 10, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 70 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (12, 100.0%)
0.00 12, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 71 A (1, 8.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (3, 25.0%)
D (8, 66.7%)
0.29 8, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 72 A (7, 58.3%)
B (2, 16.7%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (2, 16.7%)
0.50 7, 58.3%
41.7%
Q 73 A (11, 91.7%)
B (1, 8.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.32 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 74 A (1, 8.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (11, 91.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.53 11, 91.7%
8.3%
Q 75 A (10, 83.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 8.3%)
D (1, 8.3%)
-0.26 10, 83.3%
16.7%
ExamItem Analysis Report Exams Graded: 6 Instructor:
Total Possible:
100 Class Average:
83.8 - 83.83%
Exam Name:
Highest Score:
92 - 92.00%
Class Median:
84.0 - 84.00%
Exam Date:
Tuesday, February 4, 2025 Lowest Score:
73 - 73.00%
Cronbach's Alpha:
0.722 Class ID:
KR20:
0.722 Correct answers are shown in bold and italics Percent Incorrect Correct Biserial Point Multiples Blanks Report Run Date: 2/5/2025 11:53 AM Página 1 Q 1 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 2 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 3 A (2, 33.3%)
B (4, 66.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.64 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 4 A (1, 16.7%)
B (3, 50.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.53 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 5 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 6 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 7 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 8 A (1, 16.7%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 9 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (5, 83.3%)
D (1, 16.7%)
-0.31 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 10 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 11 A (0, 0.0%)
B (2, 33.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (4, 66.7%)
0.40 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 12 A (1, 16.7%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.21 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 13 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 14 A (5, 83.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.01 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 15 A (5, 83.3%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.09 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 16 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 17 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (5, 83.3%)
0.21 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 18 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
-0.01 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 19 A (5, 83.3%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.31 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 20 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
0.21 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 21 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 22 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 23 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 24 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 25 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 26 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 27 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
ExamItem Analysis Report Exams Graded: 6 Instructor:
Total Possible:
100 Class Average:
83.8 - 83.83%
Exam Name:
Highest Score:
92 - 92.00%
Class Median:
84.0 - 84.00%
Exam Date:
Tuesday, February 4, 2025 Lowest Score:
73 - 73.00%
Cronbach's Alpha:
0.722 Class ID:
KR20:
0.722 Correct answers are shown in bold and italics Percent Incorrect Correct Biserial Point Multiples Blanks Report Run Date: 2/5/2025 11:53 AM Página 2 Q 28 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 29 A (2, 33.3%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (3, 50.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.70 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 30 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 31 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 32 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 33 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 34 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (5, 83.3%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 35 A (3, 50.0%)
B (3, 50.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.70 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 36 A (3, 50.0%)
B (2, 33.3%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.31 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 37 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
-0.01 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 38 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 39 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 40 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 41 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 42 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 43 A (0, 0.0%)
B (4, 66.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (2, 33.3%)
-0.08 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 44 A (4, 66.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.26 2, 33.3%
66.7%
Q 45 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 46 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 47 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 48 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 49 A (5, 83.3%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.62 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 50 A (1, 16.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (5, 83.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 51 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (5, 83.3%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 52 A (3, 50.0%)
B (3, 50.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.31 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 53 A (1, 16.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (5, 83.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.21 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 54 A (4, 66.7%)
B (2, 33.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.16 4, 66.7%
33.3%
ExamItem Analysis Report Exams Graded: 6 Instructor:
Total Possible:
100 Class Average:
83.8 - 83.83%
Exam Name:
Highest Score:
92 - 92.00%
Class Median:
84.0 - 84.00%
Exam Date:
Tuesday, February 4, 2025 Lowest Score:
73 - 73.00%
Cronbach's Alpha:
0.722 Class ID:
KR20:
0.722 Correct answers are shown in bold and italics Percent Incorrect Correct Biserial Point Multiples Blanks Report Run Date: 2/5/2025 11:53 AM Página 3 Q 55 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
-0.31 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 56 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 57 A (2, 33.3%)
B (4, 66.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.56 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 58 A (2, 33.3%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (3, 50.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.37 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 59 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (4, 66.7%)
-0.10 2, 33.3%
66.7%
Q 60 A (4, 66.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.10 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 61 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 62 A (1, 16.7%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.09 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 63 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 64 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 65 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
0.21 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 66 A (5, 83.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 67 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 68 A (0, 0.0%)
B (3, 50.0%)
C (3, 50.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.70 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 69 A (0, 0.0%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 16.7%)
-0.09 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 70 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 71 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (4, 66.7%)
0.64 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 72 A (4, 66.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (2, 33.3%)
0.40 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 73 A (5, 83.3%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 74 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 75 A (4, 66.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (1, 16.7%)
-0.32 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 76 A (0, 0.0%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 77 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 78 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 79 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 80 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (4, 66.7%)
0.16 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 81 A (5, 83.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.01 5, 83.3%
16.7%
ExamItem Analysis Report Exams Graded: 6 Instructor:
Total Possible:
100 Class Average:
83.8 - 83.83%
Exam Name:
Highest Score:
92 - 92.00%
Class Median:
84.0 - 84.00%
Exam Date:
Tuesday, February 4, 2025 Lowest Score:
73 - 73.00%
Cronbach's Alpha:
0.722 Class ID:
KR20:
0.722 Correct answers are shown in bold and italics Percent Incorrect Correct Biserial Point Multiples Blanks Report Run Date: 2/5/2025 11:53 AM Página 4 Q 82 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 83 A (1, 16.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
0.21 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 84 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (5, 83.3%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 85 A (0, 0.0%)
B (3, 50.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.53 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 86 A (0, 0.0%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 16.7%)
-0.01 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 87 A (0, 0.0%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 88 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 89 A (0, 0.0%)
B (2, 33.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (4, 66.7%)
0.40 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 90 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 91 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 92 A (2, 33.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (2, 33.3%)
0.74 2, 33.3%
66.7%
Q 93 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 94 A (1, 16.7%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.82 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 95 A (1, 16.7%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.01 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 96 A (0, 0.0%)
B (4, 66.7%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.10 2, 33.3%
66.7%
Q 97 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 98 A (3, 50.0%)
B (3, 50.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.08 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 99 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (5, 83.3%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.21 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 100 A (5, 83.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 16.7%)
-0.01 5, 83.3%
16.7%
ExamItem Analysis Report Exams Graded: 6 Instructor:
Total Possible:
25 Class Average:
20.2 - 80.67%
Exam Name:
Highest Score:
23 - 92.00%
Class Median:
20.0 - 80.00%
Exam Date:
Tuesday, February 4, 2025 Lowest Score:
15 - 60.00%
Cronbach's Alpha:
0.683 Class ID:
KR20:
0.683 Correct answers are shown in bold and italics Percent Incorrect Correct Biserial Point Multiples Blanks Report Run Date: 2/5/2025 11:52 AM Página 1 Q 76 A (0, 0.0%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.79 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 77 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 78 A (0, 0.0%)
B (6, 100.0%) C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 79 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 80 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (4, 66.7%)
0.28 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 81 A (5, 83.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.33 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 82 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 83 A (1, 16.7%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
0.03 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 84 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (5, 83.3%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.79 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 85 A (0, 0.0%)
B (3, 50.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.40 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 86 A (0, 0.0%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.33 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 87 A (0, 0.0%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (1, 16.7%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.79 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 88 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 89 A (0, 0.0%)
B (2, 33.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (4, 66.7%)
0.40 4, 66.7%
33.3%
Q 90 A (6, 100.0%) B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 91 A (0, 0.0%)
B (1, 16.7%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (5, 83.3%)
0.79 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 92 A (2, 33.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (2, 33.3%)
0.57 2, 33.3%
66.7%
Q 93 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (6, 100.0%) D (0, 0.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 94 A (1, 16.7%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.79 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 95 A (1, 16.7%)
B (5, 83.3%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.33 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 96 A (0, 0.0%)
B (4, 66.7%)
C (2, 33.3%)
D (0, 0.0%)
0.32 2, 33.3%
66.7%
Q 97 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (6, 100.0%)
0.00 6, 100.0%
0.0%
Q 98 A (3, 50.0%)
B (3, 50.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (0, 0.0%)
-0.06 3, 50.0%
50.0%
Q 99 A (0, 0.0%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (5, 83.3%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.03 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Q 100 A (5, 83.3%)
B (0, 0.0%)
C (0, 0.0%)
D (1, 16.7%)
0.33 5, 83.3%
16.7%
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 4 50% missed Candidates were confused if they tripped open or closed for overspeed. Two people did not understand the purpose and function of Bleeder Trip Valves.
The plant is operating at 100% power when the following occurs:
A Main Turbine trip occurs due to low Main Condenser vacuum.
05-1-02-I-2, Turbine and Generator Trips, is entered.
Given the following valves:
1N36-F013A, FW HTR 5A EXTR STM BTV 1N36-F013B, FW HTR 5B EXTR STM BTV 1N36-F012A, FW HTR 6A EXTR STM BTV 1N36-F012B, FW HTR 6B EXTR STM BTV 1N11-F003A, MSR A 1ST STG RHT EXTR STM BTV 1N11-F003B, MSR B 1ST STG RHT EXTR STM BTV 1N33-F015, SS GEN STM BTV Which one of the following describes the response of these valves and the reason for this response?
These valves A.
open to limit Main Turbine overspeed B.
close to limit Main Turbine overspeed C.
open to limit Main Condenser pressurization D.
close to limit Main Condenser pressurization Answer:
B
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 8 33% missed Candidates thought that the valves will close on loss of air The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
An Instrument Air leak has occurred.
05-1-02-V-9, Loss of Instrument Air, has been entered.
The leak has been isolated by securing the Instrument Air supply to the Offgas system.
Which one of the following describes a consequence of losing the Instrument Air supply to the Offgas system?
A.
Degraded Main Condenser vacuum due to interruption of process flow B.
Higher airborne radiation levels due to process flow leakage from the system C.
Rise in plant radioactivity release due to bypassing of the charcoal adsorber beds D.
Rise in concentration of combustible gases due to change in recombiner inlet temperature Answer:
B
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 11 50% missed Candidates did not know they had to re-enter EPs. This was not practiced in the Simulator A plant shutdown is in progress with the following:
All control rods are inserted.
Reactor pressure is 50 psig and lowering slowly.
Then, a coolant leak inside the containment results in the following:
Time (hh:mm)
Condition 00:00 Drywell temperature is 140oF and rising.
00:05 Drywell pressure is 1.3 psig and rising.
Which one of the following describes the EP entry requirements for this event?
EP-3, Primary Containment Control EP-2, RPV Control A.
Needs to be entered at time 0. Does NOT need to be re-entered.
Does NOT need to be entered.
B.
Needs to be entered at time 0. Does NOT need to be re-entered.
Needs to be entered at time 5 minutes.
C.
Needs to be entered at time 0. Needs to be re-entered at time 5 minutes.
Does NOT need to be entered.
D.
Needs to be entered at time 0. Needs to be re-entered at time 5 minutes.
Needs to be entered at time 5 minutes.
Answer:
D
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 20 33% missed Candidates was just confused on the setpoints, they remember being taught those numbers The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
Grid instabilities are occurring.
05-1-02-I-8, Loss of BOP AC Power / Grid Instability ONEP, is entered.
The Main Generator voltage regulator is in AUTO.
System Operations Center and Transmission Operations Center have requested GGNS supply maximum MVARs to the grid.
Which one of the following identifies the maximum MVARs that may be supplied to the grid, in accordance with 05-1-02-I-8?
A.
-313.7 MVAR B.
+313.7 MVAR C.
-697.4 MVAR D.
+697.4 MVAR Answer:
D
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 29 50% missed Candidates did not understand where the D/P was sensed for ECCS line Break The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
Annunciator P601-21A-H8, LPCS SYS OOSVC, alarms.
The alarm is determined to be due to a valid LPCS line break.
Which one of the following identifies the location of the LPCS line break?
A.
Between the suppression pool and the pump B.
Between the pump and the injection valve (F005)
C.
Between the injection valve (F005) and the core shroud D.
Inside the core shroud Answer:
C
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 35 50% missed Candidates thought there was only 1 switch and did not realize there are 2 switches A plant startup is in progress with the following:
All IRMs are indicating on range 1.
SRM A is bypassed due to a failure.
Then, the following occurs:
The SRM B high voltage power supply degrades from 350 VDC to 50 VDC.
NO other SRMs are affected by this failure.
Which one of the following describes:
whether a control rod block is received and the ability to bypass SRM B while SRM A is bypassed, in accordance with 04-1-01-C51-1, Neutron Monitoring?
Control Rod Block Can SRM B Be Bypassed While SRM A Is Bypassed?
A.
Is received Yes B.
Is received No C.
Is NOT received Yes D.
Is NOT received No Answer:
A
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 36 50% missed Candidates thought it was feed to both divisions, did not realize it only went to the single channel The plant is operating at 100% power when the signal from Reactor Recirc loop B drive flow transmitter B33-N024B drifts high.
Which one of the following describes the impact of this failure on APRMs?
This failure (1) the scram setpoint for (2).
(1)
(2)
A.
raises one APRM, only B.
raises two APRMs, only C.
lowers one APRM, only D.
lowers two APRMs, only Answer:
A
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 37 33% missed Candidates did not know if the "ow comparison went to the scram signal or not The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
Annunciator P680-5A-C11, APRM FLOW UPSC/COMP, alarms.
Total flow signals for each APRM are:
o A: 97% of rated o B: 90% of rated o C: 102% of rated o D: 92% of rated Which one of the following describes:
the cause of the alarm and whether a half scram is received?
Cause of Alarm Half Scram A.
Flow Upscale Received B.
Flow Upscale NOT received C.
Flow Compare Received D.
Flow Compare NOT received Answer:
D
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 43 33% missed The critical speed confused several Candidates.
The plant was operating at 80% power when RFPT A tripped. The following conditions now exist:
Reactor water level is 30 NR and stable.
Both Reactor Recirc pumps are operating in fast speed.
Both Reactor Recirc flow control valves remain at their pre-transient position.
RFPT B speed is 6000 rpm.
Which one of the following describes:
the concern with the current RFPT speed and the required control of Reactor Recirc, in accordance with 05-1-02-V-7, Feedwater System Malfunctions?
Concern Required Control of Reactor Recirc A.
Pump runout Shift Reactor Recirc pumps to slow speed B.
Pump runout Lower Reactor Recirc flow using the flow control valves C.
Pump critical speed Shift Reactor Recirc pumps to slow speed D.
Pump critical speed Lower Reactor Recirc flow using the flow control valves Answer:
B
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 44 66% missed Candidates went with suction valve because other systems use the suction valve.
The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
Standby Gas Treatment (SBGT) A is in service to support a maintenance window for auxiliary building ventilation.
High winds are causing enclosure building differential pressure changes.
Which one of the following describes:
the component that is controlled to adjust enclosure building differential pressure and the setpoint for enclosure building differential pressure that this component attempts to maintain?
Component Differential Pressure Setpoint A.
T48-F021A, Encl Bldg Suction Damper
-0.25 wc B.
T48-F021A, Encl Bldg Suction Damper
+0.25 wc C.
T48-F500A, Filter Train Exhaust Vane
-0.25 wc D.
T48-F500A, Filter Train Exhaust Vane
+0.25 wc Answer:
C
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 54 33% missed This is an override in the ONEP. Candidates missed the reactor pressure A plant startup is in progress with the following:
Time (hh:mm)
Conditions 00:00 Reactor pressure is 500 psig.
CRD pump A is running.
CRD pump B is secured.
00:01 Annunciator P601-22A-C3, CRD PMP A/B AUTO TRIP, alarms.
Annunciator P601-22A-A3, CRD CHRG WTR PRESS LO, alarms.
CRD pump A is tripped.
CRD pump B will NOT start.
00:05 Annunciator P680-4A2-D4, HCU TROUBLE, alarms.
Control rod 22-19 accumulator pressure is 1450 psig and lowering slowly.
Control rod 22-19 is at position 24.
Which one of the following describes:
the concern with these conditions and the need for a reactor scram at this time?
Concern Reactor Scram A.
Slow control rod scram time Required B.
Slow control rod scram time NOT required C.
Higher risk of control rod drift Required D.
Higher risk of control rod drift NOT required Answer:
A
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 58 58% missed Candidates thought this could be sampled and marked as identi"ed. The high setpoint did not know if it would be high or normal The plant is operating at 100% power with Drywell Air Cooler Drain Flow recorder 1E31-FIS-R609, on panel 1H13-P642, indicating 3.1 gpm.
Which one of the following describes this indication?
The 1E31-FIS-R609 flow rate is classified as (1) reactor coolant leakage.
The indicated flow rate is (2).
(1)
(2)
A.
identified high B.
identified normal C.
unidentified high D.
unidentified normal Answer:
C
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 59 66% missed Candidates confused where the TD starts running.
The plant experiences a steam leak in the drywell with the following:
Time (minutes)
Conditions 0
A failure causes drywell vacuum breakers to fail open.
3 Drywell pressure is 1.39 psig and rising slowly.
Containment pressure is 1.39 psig and rising slowly.
8 Drywell pressure is 7.84 psig and rising slowly.
Containment pressure is 7.84 psig and rising slowly.
With NO operator actions, which one of the following describes the response of Containment Spray?
automatically initiates at approximately Time = 3 minutes B.
automatically initiates at approximately Time = 8 minutes C.
will automatically initiate at approximately Time = 14 minutes D.
will automatically initiate at approximately Time = 19 minutes Answer:
C
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 60 50% missed Candidates did not know FPCCU did not have min "ow valve and selected the 1100 "ow normal "ow The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
The Fuel Pool Cooling and Cleanup (FPCC) system is being placed in service per 04 01-G41-1, Fuel Pool Cooling and Cleanup System.
One FPCC heat exchanger is being placed in service.
One Fuel Pool Cooling and Cleanup (FPCC) pump is being placed in service.
Which one of the following describes the caution for system flow when starting the pump, in accordance with 04-1-01-G41-1?
Within 30 seconds, ensure flow is A.
>400 gpm to prevent degradation to the pump B.
>400 gpm to limit erosion of the minimum flow valve C.
<1100 gpm to minimize heat exchanger tube fretting D.
<1100 gpm to avoid filter/demineralizer resin channeling Answer:
A
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 68 50% missed Candidates thought it was in the turbine building because that is where to took logs during a NOB. Other candidates thought it was auto reset.
The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
The Area Radiation Monitor (ARM) for the Reactor Feedwater Pump area alarms high due to a move of radioactive material in the area.
The radiation level then returns to normal.
Which one of the following describes the resulting operation of the ARM trip unit high alarm?
The trip unit high alarm A.
automatically resets B.
must be manually reset in the turbine building C.
must be manually reset in the main control room D.
must be manually reset in the upper cable spreading room Answer:
C
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 71 33% missed Candidates did not realize the zero period and got confused.
A plant startup is in progress with the following:
Multiple control rods have been withdrawn to position 48.
SRMs indicate 1x102 cps and stable.
Then, an additional control rod is withdrawn from position 00 to 48.
The reactor remains subcritical.
There is NO additional rod motion.
Which one of the following describes the response of SRM count rate and reactor period?
SRM count rate rises and stabilizes above 1x102 cps because the (1) has risen.
As SRM count rate stabilizes, reactor period decays to (2).
(1)
(2)
A.
neutron source strength zero B.
neutron source strength infinity C.
number of neutrons produced by subcritical multiplication zero D.
number of neutrons produced by subcritical multiplication infinity Answer:
D
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question72 41% missed Candidates did not think about reactivity or the different types.
The plant is operating at 100% power during the middle of a fuel cycle (MOC).
Which one of the following identifies the coefficient of reactivity that has the largest absolute value?
A.
Void B.
Doppler C.
Fuel Temperature D.
Moderator Temperature Answer:
A
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 80 33% missed Candidates did not realize 13 bypass the interlocks where 14 did not bypass the 1.23psi.
EPs state to perform both 13 & 14 The plant has experienced a loss of coolant accident with the following:
An Emergency Depressurization has been performed due to exceeding the Pressure Suppression Pressure (PSP).
Reactor pressure is 75 psig and stable.
Reactor water level is 30 NR and stable with RHR injecting.
Containment pressure is 27 psig and rising.
Containment pressure CANNOT be maintained within the SAFE region of the Primary Containment Pressure Limit (PCPL).
Chemistry reports that venting of the containment will result in exceeding release rate limits.
Which one of the following describes the required control of containment venting, in accordance with the Emergency Procedures?
A.
Do NOT vent the containment because defeating interlocks would be required B.
Do NOT vent the containment because the expected offsite release rates are too high C.
Vent the containment, without defeating interlocks, per EP-1 Attachment 14, Containment Venting D.
Vent the containment, with defeating interlocks, per EP-1 Attachment 13, Containment Venting/Defeating Containment Vent Path Isolation Interlocks Answer:
D
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 85 50% missed Candidates were misled by the "rst bullet (seismic event) recommend removing and just saying several barrels were spilled. The seismic event tricked the candidates into thinking we have a break in the piping.
The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
A seismic event has occurred.
Multiple barrels of radioactive waste have spilled in the auxiliary building.
Annunciator P844-1A-C4, RHR HT EXCHANGER HATCH AREA RADIATION HIGH, is in alarm.
ARM 1D21-K611, RHR HX A HATCH 7/139 1A302, is in alarm and indicates upscale.
Annunciator P844-1A-D4, EMERGENCY CORE COOLING ROOMS RADIATION HIGH, is in alarm.
ARM 1D21-K603, RCIC ROOM 7/93, is in alarm and indicates upscale.
EP-4, Auxiliary Building Control, has been entered.
Both of the alarming ARMs are on Table SC-1, Aux Building Area Parameters, with a Max Normal Value of 102 mr/hr and a Max Safe Value of 8 x 104 mr/hr.
Which one of the following describes the required direction for control of the reactor, in accordance with the EP-4?
Direct a A.
rapid reactor power reduction per IOI 03-1-01-2, Power Operations. A reactor shutdown is NOT required.
B.
reactor shutdown per IOI 03-1-01-2, Power Operations. A reactor scram is NOT required.
C.
reactor scram per EP-2, RPV Control. An emergency RPV depressurization is not required.
D.
reactor scram and emergency RPV depressurization per EP-2, RPV Control.
Answer:
B
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 89 33% missed Candidates thought the other valve was messed up and that is why they selected this answer.
The plant is operating at 50% power with the following:
An outboard Primary Containment Isolation Valve (PCIV) failed its stroke time testing.
To comply with the associated LCO, the inoperable valve has been closed and deactivated.
Maintenance has been performed to repair the valve.
Post Maintenance Testing (PMT) requires the valve to be re-opened for stroke time testing.
Which one of the following describes the ability to re-open this valve, in accordance with Technical Specifications A.
Enter LCO 3.0.3, complete the PMT, then exit LCO 3.0.3 B.
The inboard PCIV must be closed before re-opening the valve C.
The plant must be placed in a different Mode before re-opening the valve D.
The valve may be re-opened under administrative controls per LCO 3.0.5 Answer:
D
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 92 66% missed Candidates did not know the 7-day TRM from memory The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
Diesel driven fire pump SP64-C003B is unavailable due to corrective maintenance.
Electric driven fire pump SP64-C002 is due for surveillance testing.
SP64-C002 is started for monthly testing.
SP64-C002 trips due to a sustained electrical fault on the motor.
Which one of the following describes the required action for this condition in accordance with the Technical Requirements Manual (TRM)?
A.
Provide an alternate fire pump within a maximum of 7 days.
B.
Establish an hourly fire watch patrol to inspect protected areas until an alternate fire pump is provided.
C.
Perform a risk assessment of all work for fire-related risk and manage the associated risk until an alternate fire pump is provided.
D.
There is NO required action and NO time limit for restoring an alternate fire pump for this condition.
Answer:
A
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question96 66% missed Candidates did not think the duty manager was the correct approval level The plant is operating at 100% power.
Concurrent work activities are being considered that would result in a risk level of ORANGE.
Which one of the following describes this risk level, per 01-S-18-6, Risk Assessment of Maintenance Activities?
This is A.
a routine level of risk and requires Shift Manager approval, only B.
a non-routine level of risk and may NOT be entered voluntarily C.
a non-routine level of risk and requires special approval from the Duty Manager D.
a non-routine level of risk and requires special approval from the PRA Engineer Answer:
C
Analysis of Applicant Comments for High Miss Questions Question 98 50% missed Candidates mis-read the distractor and thought continuous discharge was controlled by a approval.
Consider the following processes during normal plant operations:
(1) Batch release of liquid radioactive waste (2) Continuous release of liquid effluents (3) Continuous discharge of gaseous effluents Which of the above processes are controlled using a Discharge Permit per 01-S-08-11, Radioactive Discharge Controls?
A.
(1) only B.
(1) and (2) only C.
(2) and (3) only D.
(3) only Answer:
A
NRC Exam Administration Log - Applicant Questions February 4, 2025 Page 1 of 3 Time Student Q#
Applicant Question Exam Proctor Response 0800 Start the exam 0811 11 What does re-enter mean?
No additional info given.
0812 9 What is the status of RHR A?
Read the stem, no additional info given.
0816 7 What does one of the running CCW pumps trip mean?
Discussed with Chief Examiner (CE) -- re-emphasizeOne of the running CCW pumps trips 0827 26 Does Feedwater Pump mean Reactor Feedwater Pump Yes, Feedwater Pump means Reactor Feedwater Pump 0833 30 Operator returns switch to Auto, does that mean the switch spring returned to auto?
Read the stem, no additional info given.
0850 XX Calculator stopped working Replace calculator with new calculator 0856 27 Does the question only want the status of these pumps?
Read the stem, no additional info given.
0900 30 The stem states HPCS system, is that the Diesel or the HPCS Read the stem, no additional info given.
0901 28 Applicant stated RHR B is a big pump/motor and 20 amps is very low amps No response given, student wanted to read the stem 0906 27 Is the question only asking the status of the pump and not the level where the pump will trip Read the stem, no additional info given.
0920 36 What does Recirc Loop B drive flow mean Read the stem, no additional info given.
0953 55 No question, applicant read the question to proctor No additional info given.
1003 49 What is the status of the 17 bus, the question only asks about the 15&16 bus?
Read the stem, no additional info given.
1015 54 Both A&B or C&D are a concern, A&B are a bigger concern because of the accumulator pressure. I dont like this question.
Read the stem, no additional info given.
1025 66 Applicant talked thru the process to answer the question.
No additional info given.
1032 Completed the exam 1039 Completed the exam 1053 78 On the EAL chart is there an (OR)/(AND) statement for CU1.1 + CU2.1?
The EAL chart doesnt have an (OR)/(AND) statement between those steps.
1124 86 Why did we not give them T.S. 3.6.2.3?
I told him to verify his tabs, he found the tab 4 with the required T.S.
1128 18 What is the UE level?
No additional info given.
NRC Exam Administration Log - Applicant Questions February 4, 2025 Page 2 of 3 1132 85 I know that stem states barrels spilled the liquid, but does the reactor have a leak?
Read the stem, no additional info given.
1136 Completed the exam 1137 87 Applicant asked for the Loop Logic to determine the functions that were lost.
No additional info given.
1140 49 Are they asking when the Diesel gets the start signal or when the diesel is running?
Read the stem, no additional info given.
1145 23 Applicant talked thru the question. No question asked No additional info given.
1205 58 Normal flow is.2 GPM so 3.1 GPM is higher than normal.
No question asked No additional info given.
1216 Completed the exam 1216 Completed the exam 1217 Completed the exam 1221 43 Applicant read the question. No question asked No additional info given.
1227 49 Are they asking for the first received a start signal or the diesel starts Read the stem, no additional info given.
1235 67 I think MCPR and APLHGR are both is T.S. What one do they want?
I cant answer that question. no additional info given.
Asked CE told candidates to select the answer they feel the most comfortable.
1236 72 I have heard doppler frequently but I know we sweep away voids with recirc pumps. What one do they want?
I cant answer that question. no additional info given.
Asked CE told candidates to select the answer they feel the most comfortable.
1238 Completed the exam 1240 24 Applicant stated we have a group 6 isolation which will isolate air to containment. That will cause the MSIVs to close and cause a loss of RFPT. No question asked No additional info given.
1254 43 Asked a question about the stem Read the stem, no additional info given.
1256 14 Read the question to the proctor, no question asked.
No additional info given.
1300 Completed the exam 1314 Completed the exam 1320 Completed the exam 1336 Completed the exam
NRC Exam Administration Log - Applicant Questions February 4, 2025 Page 3 of 3 1336 Completed the exam