ML020920552

3.5.2

3.5 EMERGENCY CORE COOLING SYSTEMS (ECCS)

3.5.2 High Pressure Injection (HPI)

The

a.

b.

C.

d.

e.

f.

HPI System shall be OPERABLE with:

Two HPI trains OPERABLE;

An additional HPI pump OPERABLE;

Two LPI-HPI flow paths OPERABLE;

Two HPI discharge crossover valves OPERABLE;

HPI suction headers cross-connected; and

HPI discharge headers separated.

APPLICABILITY:

MODES 1 and 2,

MODE 3 with Reactor Coolant System (RCS) temperature

> 3500F.

ACTIONS

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

A.

One HPI pump

A.1

Restore HPI pump to

72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months

OPERABLE status.

AND

One or more HPI

A.2

Restore HPI discharge

72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months

discharge crossover

crossover valve(s) to

valve(s) inoperable.

OPERABLE status.

(continued)

Amendment Nos. 314, 314, & 314 1

LCO 3.5.2

OCONEE UNITS 1, 2, & 3

3.5.2-1

3.5.2

ACTIONS (continued)

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

B.

Required Action and

B.1

Reduce THERMAL

12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months

associated

POWER to 5 75% RTP.

Completion Time of

Condition A not met.

AND

B.2

Verify by administrative

12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months

means that the ADV

flow path for each

steam generator is

OPERABLE.

AND

B.3

Restore HPI pump to

30 days from initial entry

OPERABLE status.

into Condition A

AND

B.4

Restore HPI discharge

30 days from initial entry

crossover valve(s) to

into Condition A

OPERABLE status.

(continued)

Amendment Nos. 314, 314, & 314 1

3.5.2-2

OCONEE UNITS 1, 2, & 3

3.5.2

ACTIONS (continued)

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

I

COMPLETION TIME

C.

One HPI train

C.1

-NOTE

Only required when

inoperable HPI train is

incapable of automatic

actuation and incapable

of actuation through

remote manual

alignment.

Reduce THERMAL

POWER to *75% RTP.

AND

-.

NOTE

Only required when

THERMAL POWER

< 75% RTP.

Verify by administrative

means that the ADV

flow path for each

steam generator is

OPERABLE.

AND

C.3

Restore HPI train to

OPERABLE status.

3 hours3.472222e-5 days 8.333333e-4 hours 4.960317e-6 weeks 1.1415e-6 months

72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months

D.

HPI suction headers

D.1

Cross-connect HPI

72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months

not cross-connected.

suction headers.

E.

HPI discharge

E.1

Hydraulically separate

72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months

headers cross-

HPI discharge headers.

connected.

(continued)

Amendment Nos. 314, 314, & 314 1

C.2

OCONEE UNITS 1, 2, & 3

3.5.2-3

3.5.2

ACTIONS

(continued)

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

F.

One LPI-HPI flow

F.1

Restore LPI-HPI flow

72 hours8.333333e-4 days 0.02 hours 1.190476e-4 weeks 2.7396e-5 months

path inoperable,

path to OPERABLE

status.

G.

Required Action and

G.1

Be in MODE 3.

12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months

associated

Completion Time of

AND

Condition B, C, D, E,

or F not met.

G.2

Reduce RCS

60 hours6.944444e-4 days 0.0167 hours 9.920635e-5 weeks 2.283e-5 months

temperature to < 3500F.

H.

Two HPI trains

H.1

Enter LCO 3.0.3.

Immediately

Two LPI-HPI flow

paths inoperable.

SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS

SURVEILLANCE

FREQUENCY

SR 3.5.2.1

Verify each HPI manual and non-automatic

31 days

power operated valve in the flow path, that is

not locked, sealed, or otherwise secured in

position, is in the correct position.

SR 3.5.2.2

--

NOTE

Not applicable to operating HPI pump(s).

Vent each HPI pump casing.

31 days

(continued)

Amendment Nos. 314, 314, & 314 1

OCONEE UNITS 1, 2, & 3

3.5.2-4

3.5.2

SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS

(continued)

SURVEILLANCE

FREQUENCY

SR 3.5.2.3

Verify each HPI pump's developed head at the

In accordance with the

test flow point is greater than or equal to the

Inservice Testing Program

required developed head.

SR 3.5.2.4

Verify each HPI automatic valve in the flow

18 months

path that is not locked, sealed, or otherwise

secured in position, actuates to the correct

position on an actual or simulated actuation

signal.

SR 3.5.2.5

Verify each HPI pump starts automatically on

18 months

an actual or simulated actuation signal.

SR 3.5.2.6

Verify, by visual inspection, each HPI train

18 months

reactor building sump suction inlet is not

restricted by debris and suction inlet trash

racks and screens show no evidence of

structural distress or abnormal corrosion.

SR 3.5.2.7

Cycle each HPI discharge crossover valve and

18 months

LPI-HPI flow path discharge valve.

Amendment Nos. 314, 314, & 314 I

OCONEE UNITS 1, 2, & 3

3.5.2-5

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

34. An electrical fault has resulted in 1TC 4160 switch gear being de-energized.

Which of the following components will be unavailable as a result of this malfunction?

A.

Reactor Building Cooling Unit "IA"

B.

CC Pumps 1A and 1B

C.

Inverter 1KVID

D.

The unit 1 Turning Gear Oil Pump

A) A

Reasons:

A.

Correct Answer: Reactor Building Cooling Unit "A" is powered from TC

4160 SG and would be lost if this component is de-energized.

B.

1A1 RCP is not powered from containment cooling fan power suppies.

C.

Inverter KVID is not dependent on a single power supply and does not

receive power from TC.

D.

The Turning Gear Oil Pump is not powered from TC.

OC Reference: LP Book I of II, Vol 2, OP-OC-STG-CCW

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

35. Which one of the following is the correct purpose/purposes for installing the LP-1 9

flange for RCS drain down on Unit 1?

A. Must be done ONLY for a refueling outage; The flange is NOT required to be on

prior to draining < 100 inches.

B. Must be done for every drain down prior to draining < 100 inches; Provides for a

backup decay heat drop line.

C. Must be done ONLY for a refueling outage; Provides for a backup decay heat drop

line.

D. It is ONLY required for refueling outages since other outages are considered "short

term."

A) B

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol 2, OP-OC-CP-RCD, page 20 of 39.

EO - 12

K/A:

025AK301 (3.1/3.4)

G2.2.27 (2.6/3.5)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

36. Which one of the following statements, regarding the Unit 1 RBS

when RB pressure reaches 10 psig?

A. ES channels

and "B" RBS

open signal.

7 & 8 actuate causing ALL RBS pumps to start,

HEADER RB ISOLATION) open, 1LP-21 AND 1

system, is correct

1 BS-1 and 1 BS-2 ("A"

LP-22 receive an

B. ES channels 5 & 6 actuate causing ALL RBS pumps to start, 1BS-11 and 1BS-16

("A" and "B" RBS DISCHARGE CHECK) open, 1LP-21 AND 1LP-22 ("A" and "B"

LPI BWST SUCTION) receive an open signal.

C. ES channels 7 & 8 actuate causing ONLY ONE RBS pump to start, 1BS-1 and

1BS-2 will open ("A" and "B" RBS HEADER RB ISOLATION), 1LP-21 AND 1LP-22

("A" and "B" LPI BWST SUCTION) will receive an open signal.

D. ES channels 5 & 6 actuate causing ONLY ONE RBS pump to start, 1 BS-1 1 and

1BS-16 ("A" and "B" RBS DISCHARGE CHECK) will open, 1LP-21 and 1LP-22

("A" and "B" LPI BWST SUCTION) will receive an open signal, but will NOT open.

A) A

K/A: 026A301 (4.3/4.5)

EO: 10

Reference: Vol IV, OP-OC-PNS-BS, Page 14 of 14.

Author: RFA

Distractor Analysis:

At 10 psig RB pressure, ES channels 7 and 8 actuate, All RBS pumps start, BS-1 and

BS-2 open, LP-21 and LP-22 receive an open signal.

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

37. Unit I conditions:

- Reactor power = 100%

- IA/AIA system pressure decreases to 85 psig and stabilizes

- RED OPEN light ON for 1CC-8 on ES RZ module

- Statalarms actuated:

1SA-9/B1 CC CRD RETURN FLOW LOW

1SA-9/C1 CC COMP COOLING RETURN FLOW LOW

- CC Pump status:

1A CC Pump switch ON - RED light OFF / GREEN light illuminated

1 B CC Pump switch AUTO - RED light OFF / GREEN light illuminated

Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator action to restore operation

of the CC system at this time, if possible?

A. Dispatch an NLO to manually open 1CC-8.

B. Reopen 1CC-8 from the ES Channel 6 RZ Module.

C. Manually start the 1 B CC Pump by placing the switch to ON.

D. CC cannot be restored, manually trip the reactor and all RC Pumps.

A) C

A - Incorrect - CC-8 closes < 80 psig IA pressure. The valve is open pe rthe ES RZ

module indication.

B. Incorrect - CC-8 is normally operated from the ES Channel 6 RZ Module but the

valve should be open at IA pressure of 90 psig.

C. Correct - IA pressure is not low enough (>80 psig) to fail CC-8 closed so the

automatic start circuitry has failed and requires the operator to manually start the

standby CC pump.

D. Incorrect - This would be correct if CC-8 was failed shut and could not be manually

reopened locally by an NLO and a loss of HPI seal injection occurred.

K/A: 026G2.1.7 (3.7/4.4)

TIG1, T1G1

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 37 PNS021702 PNS021702

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

38. Unit I plant conditions:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

- Reactor Power = 100%

- SASS is DEENERGIZED

- PZR LEVEL #2 selected on UB1

CURRENT CONDITIONS:

- PZR TEMPERATURE "A" indicates 1207F

- PZR TEMPERATURE "B" indicates 645°F

Which ONE of the following describes the effects on the RCS makeup system and

RCS volume?

MAKEUP FLOW

ACTUAL PZR LEVEL

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

Increases

C.

Increases

Decreases

D.

Decreases

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

A) A

A. Correct - PZR Level #2 fed by Temp compensation RTD "A" As PZR

temperature

compensation fails low this decreases indicated PZR level. As indicated PZR level

decreases an error between indicated controlling level vs. setpoint on HP-1 20 controller

is developed causing HP-120 to open and try

to raise level to setpoint. As HP-120 opens MAKEUP FLOW will increase causing

actual PZR LEVEL RCS inventory to increase.

B. Incorrect

C. Incorrect

D. Incorrect

K/A: 027AA201 (3.4/3.8)

T1G1, T1G2

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 10 IC051 IC051

NRC DB95 (IC-RCI p21-23) Objective 10,11, and 13

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

39. Unit 3 Conditons:

- Reactor power = 100%

- Pressurizer (PZR) Level Instrument #1 selected for control.

- 3HP-120 (RC Volume Control) in AUTOMATIC.

- SASS in MANUAL

Which ONE of the following describes the Pressurizer level indication response and

3HP-120 (RC Volume Control) response following an internal failure of ICCM Train

"3A"?

A. PZR level indication fails low, 3HP-120 fully opens and both PZR level High/Low

statalarms actuate.

B. PZR level indication fails as is, 3HP-120 controls level as demanded by the failed

instrument and the PZR level Emergency High/Low statalarm is inoperable.

C. PZR level indication swaps to Instrument #2, 3HP-120 controls level at setpoint and

the PZR level Emergency High/Low statalarm remains operable.

D. PZR level indication swaps to Instrument #3, 3HP-120 controls level at setpoint and

the PZR level Emergency High/Low statalarm remains operable.

A) B

A. Incorrect - would be correct for power failure to ICCM train with SASS in automatic.

B. Correct - SASS will not detect failure as output from ICCM train has not changed

C. Incorrect - SASS selects operable Pzr level signal in opposite ICCM train.

D. Incorrect - SASS will not detect failure and will not select PZR level #3 following a

ICCM Train A internal failure.

K/A: 027AK203 (2.6/2.8)

T1G1, T1G2

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 32 PNS143501

PNS143501

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

40. Which one of the following parameters is controlled to limit the

RB atmosphere following a LOCA?

amount of iodine in the

The volume of galvanized metal inside containment.

The volume of aluminum inside containment.

The pH of the RB sump.

The temperature of the RB atmosphere.

This parameter is limited to reduce the amount of post-LOCA hydrogen

and does not affect iodine in the RB atmosphere.

This parameter is limited to reduce the amount of post-LOCA hydrogen

and does not affect iodine in the RB atmosphere.

Correct Answer. TSP baskets inside containment adjust the pH of the

RB sump to between 7.0 and 11.0. This range of pH creates non-volatile

iodine and limits the amount of iodine in the RB atmosphere.

RB spray limits containment pressure by spraying liquid into the steam

atmosphere but any reduction of RB temperature is a byproduct of this

pressure reduction and not intended to limit iodine in the RB

atmosphere.

Reference: Vol IV, RB Spray

A.

B.

C.

D.

A) C

Reasons:

A.

B.

C.

D.

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

41. Given the following plant conditions:

- 100% power

The following events occur:

- Both MFW pumps trip

The following alarms are actuated:

- EFW actuated

- DSS channel trip

- Main turbine trip

- AMSAC trip

Control rod groups 5, 6, and 7 rods indicate fully inserted.

NO OPERATOR ACTIONS HAVE OCCURRED

Which of the following describes the status of the CRD Diamond panel trip confirm

light, and the breaker trip lights on the RPS cabinets?

A.

Trip confirm : LIT

Breaker trip lights : DIM

B.

Trip confirm : OFF

Breaker trip lights : BRIGHT

C.

Trip confirm : LIT

Breaker trip lights : BRIGHT

D.

Trip confirm: OFF

Breaker trip lights : DIM

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

A) D

A. RPS failed, no trip confirm because CRD breakers did

5,6,7 rods. NO operator actions means no manual trip

B. RPS failed, no trip confirm because CRD breakers did

5,6,7 rods. NO operator actions means no manual trip

C. RPS failed, no trip confirm because CRD breakers did

5,6,7 rods. NO operator actions means no manual trip

not open, DSS tripped the groups

D. CORRECT: RPS failed therefore no breakers tripped and no trip confirm, DSS tripped the

rods however, the reactor did not trip from RPS.

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

42. Which one of the following is correct if SCMs equal 00F during an ATWS event?

RCPs should not be tripped during an ATWS until power is less than or equal to:

A. 5% to provide flow through the core for heat removal.

B. 5% to provide pressure control through the spray valve.

C. 1% to provide flow through the core for heat removal.

D. 1% to provide pressure control through the spray valve.

A) C

Reference: Book II of II, Vol 6, OP-OC-EAP-UNPP, page 7 of 19.

EO-4

K/A: 029EK312 (4.4/4.7)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

43. Refueling is in progress with eight (8) fuel assemblies in the core. As the ninth

assembly is being placed in the core the following NI readings are observed:

- NI-1 increases from a base count of 203 to 430 cps.

- NI-4 increases from a base count of 250 to 480 cps.

- NI-2 and NI-3 are out-of-service.

Which one of the following actions, if any, should be taken?

A.

No action is required, this is an expected NI response.

B.

Continue inserting assembly, reactor engineering should be contacted to

perform a subcritical multiplication.

C.

Cease insertion of the fuel assembly and notify the Refueling SRO to

perform an evaluation.

D.

Withdraw the fuel assembly, reactor engineering should be contacted to

perform a subcritical multiplication.

A) C

A. An action is required, count rate has increased by more than 1.5 times. This is an

unexpected change of Netron Flus countrate. The correct response is to suspend refueling

and perform an evaluation.

B. The assembly should not be placed into the core. Refuel ing should stop.

C. Correct, The fuel movement should stop and an evaluation performed.

D. The fuel movement should stop and an evaluation performed.

Reference: OP/1/N1 502/007, Step 2.13, page 4 of 6.

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

44. Which one of the following states when the potential reactivity effects of a steam line

break, with the ICS in manual are most severe and why?

Beginning of core life because this results

reactivity addition.

Beginning of core life because this results

reactivity addition.

End of core life because this results in the

addition.

End of core life because this results in the

addition.

in the maximum negative

in the maximum positive

maximum negative reactivity

maximum positive reactivity

As the core ages MTC becomes increasingly more negative. A steam line break results in a

cooldown of the RCS and MTC adds positive reactivity as this occurs. Because MTC has a

larger negative value as the core ages, the effect of the steam line break gets greater also.

Reference: Vol VII, Plant Transient Response

Vol III, Bk 2 of 2, OTSG

A.

B.

C.

D.

A) D

Reasons:

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

45. Which one of the following set of consequences will happen if the Moore controllers for

MS-1 12/173, Second Stage Reheater (SSRH) Control, lose power.?

A. MS-1 12/173 will go to the closed position and upon regaining of power will re-open

if power is _> 75%. MS-77, 78, 80, 81 (MS to MSRH) will receive an open signal but

will not open until power is 2! 75%. MS-77, 78, 80, 81 will close if in automatic and

power is _< 1% when power is restored to MS-1 12/173.

B. MS-1 12/173 will go to the closed position. MS-77, 78, 80, 81 (MS to MSRH) will

receive an open signal AND will open in automatic if turbine load is _> 1%. MS-77,

78, 80, 81 will remain open if power is _>75% when power is restored to

MS-1 12/173.

C. MS-1 12/173 will go to the closed position AND remain closed even if power is

restored. MS-77, 78, 80, 81 (MS to MSRH) will receive an open signal AND will

open in automatic if turbine load is >_ 75%. MS-77, 78, 80, 81 will remain open if

power is < 75% when power is restored to MS-1 12/173.

D. MS-1 12/173 will go to the closed position and upon regaining of power will re-open

if power is >_ 1%. MS-77, 78, 80, 81 (MS to MSRH) will receive an open signal AND

will open in automatic if turbine load is _> 1%. MS-77, 78, 80, 81 will remain open if

power is < 75% when power is restored to MS-1 12/173.

A) B

Reference: Lesson Plans Book II of II, Vol III, OP-OC-STG-MSR , page 17 of 33.

EO - 10

K/A: 039A302 (3.1/3.5)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: C

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

46. Which of the following is available on

the main feedwater pump turbine?

the main control board (1 UB1 bench board) for

Control valve position.

First stage pressure.

Steam pressure (chest).

Stop valve position.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Main Turbine indication

CORRECT:

in

control room, NOT MFW turbine.

Reference: Vol III, Bk 2 of 2, ICS

MEM

A.

B.

C.

D.

A) D

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

47. Unit 2 plant conditions:

- ONE train of MSLB isolation circuit is disabled

- 2A Main Steam line break occurs

Which one of the following is correct?

A. The TDEFDWP will start if in AUTO.

B. The FDW Control Valves will close if in MANUAL.

C. The FDW Control Valves will fail "as is".

D. MSLB circuitry will NOT trip the Main FDW Pumps.

A) B

Reference: Book II of II, Vol 6, OP-OC-EAP-HPICD, page 13 of 36.

EO-4

K/A: 040AK302 (4.4/4.4) [assuming AFW initiation is synonymous with ESFAS initiation]

RO/SRO: Both

Level: C

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

48. Unit 3 plant conditions:

Power level = 100%

ICS is in AUTOMATIC

"B" TBVs fail FULL OPEN

ASSUMING the unit does not trip and ICS remains in AUTO, which ONE of the

following predicts the final stabilized response of Reactor power, Tave, and MWe?

Reactor power will _

, Tave will __ , and MWe will __

A. increase / decrease / decrease

B. increase / decrease / remain constant

C. remain constant / decrease / remain constant

D. remain constant / remain constant / decrease

A) D

A. Incorrect, Power and Tave will return to previous value, MW will decrease.

B. Incorrect, Power increase and Tave decrease would occur if ICS in manual.

C. Incorrect, Power remains constant, Tave will does not decrease.

D. Correct, Power remains constant due to CTP demand remaining at 100%. MSCVs

close to maintain THP resulting in decrease of steam to turbine to compensate for TBV

flow. Tave is maintained by reactor control in auto with MWe decreasing.

K/A: 041 K302 (3.8/3.9)

RO - T2G3

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank STG120801

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

49. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the turbine power/load

unbalance (PLU) circuit?

The PLU circuit will NOT generate...

A. a reactor trip until the turbine is at approximately 110.00% of rated speed.

B. a reactor trip until the turbine is at approximately 111.25% of rated speed.

C. a reactor trip until turbine speed is above 100 RPM and BOTH speed signals are

lost.

D. an automatic reactor trip signal.

A) D

Reference: Book I of II, Vol 2, OP-OC-STG-EHC, page 13 & 14 of 30.

EO - 8

K/A: 045K1 20 (3.4/3.6) Considering the PLU circuit as a protection system

RO/SRO: Both

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

50. Unit 3 plant conditions:

- 3A & 3B Main FDW pumps have tripped

- ALL EFWPs have started with 200 gpm EFW flow to each SG

- 3FDW-315 & 316 (3A and 3B OTSG EFW Flow Control Valves) in manual

- 3A and 3B SG levels = 33" XSUR and stable

- 3A Main Feedwater pump is reset

- 3A Main Feedwater pump hydraulic oil pressure = 115 psig

- 3A MFW Pump discharge pressure = 670 psig

Which ONE of the following is correct?

If 3FDW-315 & 316 are placed in Automatic, then 3FDW 315 & 316 will...

A. be controlled by the Manual Loader signal.

B. close and stay closed until SG level decreases below 25" on SU level.

C. close and stay closed until SG level decreases below 30".

D. close and stay closed until the SG Dryout Protection circuit places 3FDW-315 &

316 on Auto Level Control.

A) C

A- No automatic is controlling signal to valves

B - No 25" on SU is control level for MFDW

C - Correct

D- No - on automatic level control when automatic is selected

K/A: 054AA202 (4.1/4.4)

T1G2, TIG2

Bank

Reference: Facility updated question bank question 17 CF023203 CF023203

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

51. Which one of the following set of RCS parameters is correct if the operator is

maintaining RCS P/T stable as MS pressure decreases during a Station Blackout?

RCS Temperature will

__

as decay heat load decreases over time following the

initiating event. To combat this, the operator would

__

on either the TBVs or ADVs.

A. remain the same; throttle close

B. remain the same; throttle open

C. decrease; throttle open

D. decrease; throttle close

A) D

Distractor analysis:

If the operator is maintaining RCS P/T stable, as MS pressure decreases, RCS temperature

would attempt to decrease. This would begin to occur as decay heat load decreased over time

following the initiating event. To combat this the operator would close down on either TBVs or

ADVs (depending on which was being used). Once the Pressure Control Valves were fully

closed, additional decreases in decay heat load would result in a decreasing MS pressure and

decreasing RCS temperature and pressure. Once this condition is reached it becomes

necessary to throttle EFDW flow to the SG's to control RCS temperature. This will likely result

in a decrease in SG levels as well.

Reference: Book II of II, Vol 6, OP-OC-EAP-BO, page 8 of 50.

EO-4

K/A: 055EA202 (4.4/4.6)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: C

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

52. Which one of the following is correct concerning CCW siphon flow during a loss of

offsite power?

A. The first siphon takes a suction from the condenser inlet piping, supplies flow

through the condenser, and discharges to the Keowee Hydro tailrace. The high

point that this first siphon must overcome is the discharge of the CCW Pumps.

B. The second siphon takes a suction from the condenser inlet piping, supplies flow

through the condenser and discharges to the Keowee Hydro tailrace. The high

point that the second siphon must overcome is just down stream of the condenser.

C. The first siphon takes suction from the CCW intake canal and supplies flow to the

CCW crossover header where the LPSW system takes its suction. The high point

that the first siphon must overcome is just down stream of the condenser.

D. The second siphon takes suction from the CCW intake canal and supplies flow to

the CCW crossover header where the LPSW system takes its suction. The high

point that this second siphon must overcome is the discharge of the CCW Pumps.

A) B

Distractor Analysis:

The first siphon takes suction from the CCW intake canal and supplies flow to the CCW

crossover header where the LPSW system takes its suction. The high point that this second

siphon must overcome is the discharge of the CCW Pumps.

The second siphon takes a suction from the condenser inlet piping, supplies flow through the

condenser and discharges to the Keowee Hydro tailrace. The high point that the second

siphon must overcome is just down stream of the condenser.

Reference: Book I of II, Vol 2, OP-OC-STG-CCW, page 20 of 39.

EO - 11

K/A: A07AK21 (3.7/3.5)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: C

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

53. Plant conditions:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

- ONS Units 1 and 2 are operating at 100% power

- ONS Unit 3 MFB's are powered by Central Switchyard via CT-5

- Keowee Unit 1 is generating to the grid @ 40 MWe

CURRENT CONDITIONS:

- ONS Unit 2 has a LOCA/LOOP resulting in PROPER actuation of ES Channels

1-6

After power has been regained to ONS Unit 2 MFB's, which ONE of the following

statements is correct?

Assume NO operator action

A. 2C LPIP may be started immediately.

B. 2C LPIP may be started after 30 seconds.

C. 2X5 will Load Shed, re-energizing in 30 seconds.

D. 2X5 will NOT Load Shed and will remain energized.

A) D

A & B incorrect - LPIP C cannot be started during a Ioadshed

LPIP are not running.

C. Incorrect - See D explanation.

unless either "A" or "B"

D. Correct - 2X5 wIl not load shed upon ES even if at least 1 of the SL breakers is

closed.

K/A: 056AA254 (2.9/3.0)

T1G3, T1 G3

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 26

EL050601

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

54. Which one of the following trip the condensate booster pump?

A. FDWP suction pressure drops to * 360 psig and the associated FDWP suction

valve is open.

B. FDWPT bearing oil pressure < 4 psig AND the associated FDWP discharge valve is

open.

C. A CBP suction or discharge valve is moved from full open position to 50%.

D. The discharge header pressure on both MFDWPs is < 770 psig.

A) C

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol X, OP-OC-CF-C, page 36 of 58.

EO - 24

K/A:056K419 (1.9/1.9)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

55. Which ONE of the following describes how the Reactor Operator is initially alerted to a

trip of C-61 (COND COOLER BYPASS CONTROL) and the resulting plant response

following the trip?

C-61 tripped...

A. statalarm / Generator field and stator winding temperatures decreasing

B. OAC Alarm / Generator field and stator winding temperatures decreasing.

C. statalarm / Generator field and stator winding temperatures increasing

D. OAC Alarm / Generator field and stator winding temperatures increasing

A) D

A. incorrect, No statalarm available and field and stator winding temperatures will

increase.

B. incorrect, OAC alarm will actuate but field and stator winding temperatures will

increase, as described in "A" above.

C. incorrect, field and stator winding temperatures will increase but there is no

statalarm. increase as stated in "C" above.

D: correct, OAC alarm that C-61 has tripped open and field and stator temperatures will

increase due to decreased cooling flow through the Hydrogen coolers.

ONSW Bank question: CF127

Reference: Book I of II, Vol 2, OP-OC-STG-FHS, page 14 & 20 of 27.

EO - 18, 19

K/A: 056K603 (1.4/1.5)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

56. Unit 2 plant conditions:

- A loss of power to MCC 2XO has occurred

- Regulated Power panelboards (2KRAI2KRB) are being supplied by SOURCE 2

(Motor Control Center (MCC) 2XP)

Which ONE of the following will occur if Unit 2 experiences a loss of power to MCC

2XP?

A. 2KRA/2KRB will become de-energized.

B. Any Vital Bus Inverter on "AC Line" will swap to "Inverter".

C. The Isolating Diodes output will be supplied by their backup source.

D. 2KRA/2KRB will be supplied from the I&C Batteries until power is restored from

MCC 2XO or 2XP.

A) A

A.Correct

B.Incorrect - Vital bus inverters do not have an auto swap feature.

C.Incorrect - The statement is false. A loss of 2XO/2XP has no affect on Battery

Charger operation. Isolating Diode output would be from their normal source, the

Battery Charger.

D.Incorrect - KRA/KRB do not have battery backup.

K/A: 057AA106 (3.5/3.5)

T1G1, T1G1

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 18 EL070901

EL070901

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

57. Unit 1's DCA Bus has been inadvertently de-energized. Which ONE of the following

correctly describes the status of 1 KI (ICS) Inverter?

1 KI (ICS) Inverter is automatically supplied from ....

A. the AC Line.

B. the 1 CA battery.

C. the I DCB bus via isolating diodes.

D. an alternate unit via isolating diodes.

A) C

K/A: 058AA101 (3.4/3.5)

T1G2, T1G2

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 27 EL262 EL2621

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

58. Which one of the following is correct concerning this system and the closing of the

FDW valves during an MSLB?

A. The FDW control valves can be in AUTO or MANUAL for the system to operate. If

instrument air is lost, the FDW control valves will fail "as is."

B. The FDW control valves must be in AUTO for the system to operate. The auto-start

feature of the TDEFW pump is inhibited.

C. The FDW block valves can be in AUTO or MANUAL for the system to operate. The

auto-start feature of the TDEFW pump is inhibited.

D. The FDW block valves must be in AUTO for the system to operate. If instrument air

is lost, the FDW block valves will fail closed.

A) A

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol X, OP-OC-CF-FDW , page 29 of 33.

EO- 16 and 17

K/A:059A306 (3.2/3.3)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: C (must understand new modification logic)

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

59. Plant conditions:

Reactor power = 80%

ICS SG Master in MANUAL

ICS Turbine Master in MANUAL

All other ICS stations are in AUTO

A 50 psi INCREASE in Main Steam Pressure occurs

Which ONE of the following is correct?

ICS Main Feedwater Pump speed will initially...

A.

increase due to the resulting Turbine Header Pressure error signal.

B.

decrease due to the resulting Turbine Header Pressure error signal.

C.

increase and FDW valves would initially throttle in the open direction.

D.

decrease and FDW valves would initially throttle in the closed direction.

A) C

A. Incorrect: THP error is blocked by the SG master in Hand.

B. Incorrect: THP error is blocked by the SG master in Hand.

C. Correct: FDW valve DP would decrease causing FDWP demand to increase. FDW

valves open due to increase in flow as SG pressure decreased.

D. Incorrect: FDW valve DP decreases causing the FDWPs demand to increase.

Valves throttle open due to decreased flow with higher SG pressure

OC Reference: AP/1/A/1700/028, ICS Instrument Failures

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

60. Unit 1 conditions:

Mode 3

RCS Average Temperature = 4850F

Motor Driven Emergency Feedwater pump

switches selected to AUTO 1

Which ONE of the following conditions will initiate

MDEFDWPs?

(MDEFDWP) "IA" and "1B" control

an automatic start of the

A. BOTH channels of AMSAC actuate

B. BOTH "B" SG XSUR levels = 20" for 40 seconds

C. Hydraulic oil pressure = 0 psig on the operating MFDWP

D. Low MFDWP discharge pressure on the operating MFDWP

A) B

A. INCORRECT - AUTO 2 function

B. CORRECT - Dry-Out protection is signaled from the AUTO 1 position. BOTH XSUR

level indications < 21" for > 30 seconds starts both MDEFWPs.

C. INCORRECT - AUTO 2 function, both Main FDW Pumps would not be operating at

this temperature.

D. INCORRECT - AUTO 2 function, both Main FDW Pumps would not be operating at

this temperature.

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol X, OP-OC-CF-EFW , page 23 of 46.

EO - 24

K/A:061 K402 (4.5/4.6)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: C (must understand Auto 1/Auto2 logic)

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

61. Plant conditions:

- Keowee Unit #2 is supplying ONS Unit 1, 2, 3 via the CT-4

- CT-4 cooling fans and oil pumps operating as required

Which ONE of the following CT-4 parameters indicate that the 22.4 MVA transformer

rating on CT-4 has been exceeded?

MEGAWATTS =

/ MEGAVARS=

SEE ATTACHMENT AP/11: Encl. 5.1A (CT-4 overload limits)

A. 18 / 11

B. 11 / 16

C. 14.5 / 16

D. 18 / 14.5

A) D

A. Incorrect - This combination does not exceed the 112% line on the curve. The

combination exceeds the 100% curve (20.6 MVA)

B. Incorrect - This combination does not exceed the 112% line on the curve. The

combination exceeds the 100% curve (20.6 MVA)

C. Incorrect - This combination does not exceed the 100% or 112% line on the curve

D. Correct - This combination exceeds the 112% line on the curve

Attachment required: AP/11, encl. 5.1a (CT-4 overload limits)

K/A: 062A101 (3.4/3.8)

T2G2, T2G2

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 62 EL041201

EL041201

Enclosure 5.1A

CT-4 Overload Limits

AP/1/A/1700/011

Page 1 of 1

ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE

RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED

I

CAUTION

CT-4 is NOT designed for loads > 112%. Under extreme emergency conditions, 112% MVA limit

may be exceeded. Maximum transformer oil and winding limits should NEVER be exceeded. j

1.

_IAAT

either of the following computer

points exceed the maximum limit:

SComputer Pt.

Maximum

OIA0835

130 0C

O1A0836

130°C

THEN take immediate action to reduce

the load on CT-4.

2.

Verify both of the following available:

CT-4 MEGA WATTS

CT-4 MEGA VARS

Use Unit 1 Switchyard Mimic board

AC KILOAMPERES to determine

transformer limits:

0.50 AC KILOAMPERES Incoming

(100%)

0.60 AC KILOAMPERES Incoming

(100%)

0.93 AC KILOAMPERES Incoming

(112%)

I

NOTE

The following statalarms may provide early warning that transformer limits are being approached:

"* SA-18/B-4 (TRANSFORMER CT-4 OIL TEMPERATURE HIGH) (90°C)

"* SA-18/C-4 (TRANSFORMER CT-4 WINDING TEMP HIGH) (1 170C)

I

Enclosure 5.IA

CT-4 Overload Limits

AP/1/A/1700/011

Page 3 of 3

ACTION/EXPECTED RESPONSE

RESPONSE NOT OBTAINED

3.

-Maintain CT-4 within the limits of

Figure 1.

FIGURE 1

MEGAWATTS

[]

Fal

4.

-I

AA..Zý'I

UItkt't.LVLS

.7

.*fl

.

THEN EXIT this enclosure.

C',

NC

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

62. Which ONE of the following actions is REQUIRED per SLC 16.11-3, if 1 RIA-35 (Low

Pressure Service Water) fails low and is declared inoperable with Unit 1 operating at

100% power?

SEE ATTACHMENT: SLC 16.11-3 (Radioactive Effluent Monitoring)

A. Release may continue, provided that grab samples are taken every eight (8) hours

and analyzed within twenty-four (24) hours.

B. Release may continue, provided that grab samples are taken and analyzed

immediately and every twelve (12) hours thereafter.

C. Explain inoperability in next Semiannual Radioactive Effluent Release Report.

D. Submit a work request for repair using the normal scheduling process.

A) B

Required Attachment: SLC 16.11-3 (Radioactive Effluent Monitoring)

K/A: 062G2.1.20 (4.3/4.2)

T1G1, TIG1

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 46 WE011301 WE011301

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

16.11 RADIOLOGICAL EFFLUENTS CONTROL

16.11.3 Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

COMMITMENT

APPLICABILITY:

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation shall be OPERABLE as

follows:

a.

Liquid Effluents

The radioactive liquid effluent monitoring instrumentation channels

shown in Table 16.11.3-1 shall be OPERABLE with their alarm/trip

setpoints set to ensure that the limits of SLC 16.11.1 .a are not

exceeded.

b.

Gaseous Process and Effluents

The radioactive gaseous process and effluent monitoring

instrumentation channels shown in Table 16.11.3-2 shall be

OPERABLE with their alarm/trip setpoints set to ensure that the

limits of SLC 16.11.2.a are not exceeded.

c.

The setpoints shall be determined in accordance with the

methodology described in the ODCM and shall be recorded.

Correction to setpoints determined in accordance with Commitment c

may be permitted without declaring the channel inoperable.

According to Table 16.11.3-1 and Table 16.11.3-2.

ACTIONS

CONDITION

A.

Alarm/trip setpoint less

conservative than

required for one or

more effluent

monitoring instrument

channels.

REQUIREr) ACTION

A.1

Declare channel

A.2

Suspend release of

effluent monitored by

the channel.

COMPLETION TIME

Immediately

01/31/00 I

16.11.3-1

ACTIONS

I

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

B.

One or more required

B.1

Enter the Condition

Immediately

liquid effluent monitoring

referenced in Table

instrument channels

16.11.3-1 for the

function.

AND

B.2

Restore the

30 days

instrument(s) to

OPERABLE status.

C. One or more required

C.1

Enter the Condition

Immediately

gaseous effluent

referenced in Table

monitoring instrument

16.11.3-2 for the

channels inoperable,

function.

AND

C.2

Restore the

30 days

instrument(s) to

OPERABLE status.

D. Required Action and

D.1

Explain in next Annual

April 30 of following

associated Completion

Radiological Effluent

calendar year

Time of Required Action

Release Report why

B.2 or C.2 not met.

inoperability was not

corrected in a timely

manner.

01/31/00 I

16.11.3-2

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

E. As required by Required

E.1.1

Analyze two

Prior to initiating

Action B.1 and

independent samples

subsequent release

referenced in Table

in accordance with

16.11.3-1. (RIA-33)

SLC 16.11.4.

AND

E.1.2

Conduct two

Prior to initiating

independent data entry

subsequent release

checks for release rate

calculations

AND

E.1.3

Conduct two

Prior to initiating

independent valve

subsequent release

lineups of the effluent

pathway.

E.2

Suspend release of

Immediately

radioactive effluents by

this pathway.

F. As required by Required

F.1

Suspend release of

Immediately

Action B.1 and

radioactive effluents by

referenced in Table

this pathway.

16.11.3-1. (RIA-54)

F.2

Collect and analyze

Prior to each discrete

grab samples for gross

release of the sump

radioactivity (beta

and/or gamma) at a

lower limit of detection

of at least 10-7 .Ci/ml.

16.11.3-3

03/27/99

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

R

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

G. As required by Required

Action B.1 and

referenced in Table

16.11.3-1. (Liquid

Radwaste Effluent Line

Flow Rate Monitor)

--

-

-.NOTE -

-

--

Not required during short,

controlled outages of liquid

effluent monitoring

instrumentation. Short controlled

outages are defined as planned

removals from service for

durations not to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months ,

for purposes of sample filter

changeouts, setpoint

adjustments, service checks,

and/or routine maintenance

procedures. This guidance may

be applied successively,

provided that time between

successive short, controlled

outages is always at least equal

to duration of immediately

preceding outage.

G.1

G.2

Suspend release of

radioactive effluents by

this pathway.

Estimate flow rate

during actual releases.

Immediately

AND

Once per 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months

thereafter

16.11.3-4

03/27/99

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

H. As required by Required

Action B.1 and

referenced in Table

16.11.3-1. (RIA-35, #3

Chemical Treatment

Pond Composite

Sampler and Sampler

Flow Moditor (Turbine

Building Sumps

Effluent))

NOTE

Not required during short,

controlled outages of liquid

effluent monitoring

instrumentation. Short controlled

outages are defined as planned

"removals from service for

durations not to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months ,

for purposes of sample filter

changeouts, setpoint

adjustments, service checks,

and/or routine maintenance

procedures. This guidance may

be applied successively,

provided that time between

successive short, controlled

outages is always at least equal

to duration of immediately

preceding outage.

H.1

Suspend release of

radioactive effluents by

this pathway.

H.2

Collect and analyze

grab samples for gross

radioactivity (beta

and/or gamma) at a

lower limit of detection

of at least 10i7 iCi/ml.

Immediately

AND

Once per 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months

thereafter

01/31/00 1

16.11.3-5

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

As required by Required

Action CA and

referenced in Table

16.11.3-2 for effluent

releases from waste gas

tanks (RIA-37, RIA-38)

or containment purges

(RIA-45).

NOTE

Not required during short,

controlled outages of gaseous

effluent monitoring

instrumentation. Short controlled

outages are defined as planned

removals from service for

durations not to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months ,

for purposes of sample filter

changeouts, setpoint

adjustments, service checks,

and/or routine maintenance

procedures. This guidance may

be applied successively,

provided that time between

successive short, controlled

outages is always at least equal

to duration of immediately

preceding outage.

1.1.1

Analyze two

independent samples.

AND

1.1.2

Conduct two

independent data entry

checks for release rate

calculations

AND

1.1.3

Conduct two

independent valve

lineups of the effluent

pathway.

1.2

Suspend release of

radioactive effluents by

this pathway.

Prior to initiating

subsequent release

Prior to initiating

subsequent release

Prior to initiating

subsequent release

Immediately

01/31/00 1

16.11.3-6

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

J.

As required by Required

Action C.1 and

referenced in Table

16.11.3-2. (Effluent

Flow Rate Monitor (Unit

Vent, Containment

Purge, Interim

Radwaste Exhaust, Hot

Machine Shop Exhaust,

Radwaste Facility

Exhaust, Waste Gas

Discharge ))

NOTE

Not required during short,

controlled outages of gaseous

effluent monitoring

instrumentation. Short controlled

outages are defined as planned

removals from service for

durations not to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months ,

for purposes of sample filter

changeouts, setpoint

adjustments, service checks,

and/or routine maintenance

procedures. This guidance may

be applied successively,

provided that time between

successive short, controlled

outages is always at least equal

to duration of immediately

preceding outage.

J.1

Suspend release of

radioactive effluents by

this pathway.

J.2

Estimate flow rate

01/31/00 1

Immediately

AND

Once per 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months

thereafter

I

16.11.3-7

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

K. As required by Required

Action C.1 and

referenced in Table

16.11.3-2. '(RIA-45.

RIA-53, 4RIA-45)

NOTE --------

Not required during short,

controlled outages of gaseous

effluent monitoring

instrumentation. Short controlled

outages are defined as planned

removals from service for

durations not to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months ,

for purposes of sample filter

changeouts, setpoint

adjustments, service checks,

and/or routine maintenance

procedures. This guidance may

be applied successively,

provided that time between

successive short, controlled

outages is always at least equal

to duration of immediately

preceding outage.

K.1

Suspend release of

radioactive effluents by

this pathway.

K.2.1

Collect grab sample.

AND

K.2.2

Analyze grab samples

for gross activity (beta

and/or gamma).

Immediately

AND

Once per 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months

24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months from collection

of sample

16.11.3-8

11/14/001

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

L. As required by Required

Action C.1 and

referenced in Table

16.11.3-2. (Unit Vent

Monitoring Iodine

Sampler, Unit Vent

Monitoring Particulate

Sampler, Interim

Radwate Building

Ventilation Monitoring

Iodine Sampler, Interim

Radwaste Building

Ventilation Monitoring

Particulate Sampler, Hot

Machine Shop Iodine

Sampler, Hot Machine

Shop Particulate

Sampler, Radwaste

Facility Iodine Sampler,

Radwaste Facility

Particulate Sampler)

-NOTE

Not required during short,

controlled outages of gaseous

effluent monitoring

instrumentation. Short controlled

outages are defined as planned

removals from service for

durations not to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months ,

for purposes of sample filter

changeouts, setpoint

adjustments, service checks,

and/or routine maintenance

procedures. This guidance may

be applied successively,

provided that time between

successive short, controlled

outages is always at least equal

to duration of immediately

preceding outage.

L.1

Suspend release of

radioactive effluents by

this pathway.

L.2.1

NOTE

The collection time of

each sample shall not

exceed 7 days.

Collect samples

continuously using

auxiliary sampling

equipment.

AND

L.2.2

Analyze each sample.

Immediately

48 hours5.555556e-4 days 0.0133 hours 7.936508e-5 weeks 1.8264e-5 months from end of

each sample collection

01/31/00 1

16.11.3-9

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

M. As required by Required

Action C.1 and

referenced in Table

16.11.3-2 for effluent

releases from ventilation

system or condenser air

ejectors. (RIA-40)

-NOTE

Not required during short,

controlled outages of gaseous

effluent monitoring

instrumentation. Short controlled

outages are defined as planned

removals from service for

durations not to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months ,

for purposes of sample filter

changeouts, setpoint

adjustments, service checks,

and/or routine maintenance

procedures. This guidance may

be applied successively,

provided that time between

successive short, controlled

outages is always at least equal

to duration of immediately

preceding outage.

M.1

Continuously monitor

release through the unit

vent.

M.2

Suspend release of

radioactive effluents by

this pathway.

M.3.1

Collect grab sample.

AND

M.3.2

Analyze grab sample for

gross activity (beta

and/or gamma).

Immediately

AND

Once per 8 hours9.259259e-5 days 0.00222 hours 1.322751e-5 weeks 3.044e-6 months

24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months from collection

of grab sample

16.11.3-10

01/31/00 I

01/31/001

16.11.3-10

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS

SURVEILLANCE

SR 16.11.3.1

The Channel Response check shall consist of

verifying indications during periods of release.

Channel response checks shall be made at

least once per calendar day on days in which

continuous, periodic or batch releases are

made.

Perform Channel Response Check.

SR 16.11.3.2

S------NOTE ..

..----------

The Channel Response check shall consist of

verifying indications during periods of release.

Channel response checks shall be made at

least once per calendar day on days in which

continuous, periodic or batch releases are

made.

Perform Channel Response Check.

FREQUENCY

During each release via

this pathway

24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months

SR 16.11.3.3

Perform Source Check.

24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months

SR 16.11.3.4

Perform Source Check.

31 days

SR 16.11.3.5

Perform Source Check.

92 days

16.11.3-11

03/27/99

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

SR 16.11.3.7

-NOTE

The CHANNEL FUNCTIONAL TEST shall

also demonstrate that automatic isolation of

this pathway and control room annunciation

occurs if any of the following conditions exist:

1.

Instrument indicates measured levels

above the alarm/trip setpoint.

2.

Circuit failure (downscale only).

Perform CHANNEL FUNCTIONAL TEST.

-

-- ~~NOTE-

-

The CHANNEL FUNCTIONAL TEST shall

also demonstrate that control room

annunciation occurs if any of the following

conditions exist:

1.

Instrument indicates measured levels

above the alarm/trip setpoint.

2.

Circuit failure (downscale only).

Perform CHANNEL FUNCTIONAL TEST.

FREQUENCY

92 days

01/31/00 I

SURVEILLANCE

SR 16.11.3.6

SR 16.11.3.8

Perform CHANNEL FUNCTIONAL TEST.

92 days

16.11.3-12

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

-NOTE

The initial CHANNEL CALIBRATION shall be

performed using one or more of the reference

standards certified by the National Bureau of

Standards or using standards that have been

obtained from suppliers that participate in

measurement assurance activities with the

National Institute of Standards and

Technology (NIST). The standards shall

permit calibrating the system over its intended

range of energy and measurement. For

subsequent CHANNEL CALIBRATION,

sources that have been related to the initial

calibration shall be used. (Operating plants

may substitute previously established

calibration procedures for these

requirements.)

Perform CHANNEL CALIBRATION.

FREQUENCY

12 months

SR 16.11.3.10

Perform CHANNEL CALIBRATION.

12 months

SR 16.11.3.11

Perform leak test.

When cylinder gates or

wicket gates are

reworked

SR 16.11.3.12

Perform Source Check.

Within 24 hours2.777778e-4 days 0.00667 hours 3.968254e-5 weeks 9.132e-6 months prior to

each release via

associated pathway

01/31/00 I

SURVEILLANCE

SR 16.11.3.9

16.11.3-13

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

Table 16.11.3-1

LIQUID EFFLUENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION

OPERATING CONDITIONS AND SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS

CONDITION

REFERENCED

MINIMUM

FROM

SURVEILLANCE

REQUIRED

INSTRUMENT

CHANNELS

APPLICABILITY

REQUIREMENTS

ACTION B.1

Monitors Providing

Automatic Termination of

Release

a.

Liquid Radwaste

Effluent Line Monitor,

RIA-33

b. Turbine Building Sump.

RIA-54

2.

Monitors not Providing

Automatic Termination

of Release

Low Pressure Service Water

RIA-35

3.

Flow Rate Measuring

Devices

a.

Liquid Radwaste

Effluent Line Flow Rate

Monitor

(OLW CR0725 or

OLW SS0920)

b.

Liquid Radwaste

Effluent Line Minimum

Flow Device

c. Turbine Building Sump

Minimum Flow Device

d. Low Pressure Service

Water Minimum Flow

Device

At all times

NA

SR 16.11.3.1

SR 16.11.3.3

SR 16.11.3.6

SR 16.11.3.9

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.4

SR 16.11.3.7

SR 16.11.3.9

SR

16,11.3.2

16.11.3.4

16.11.3.7

16.11.3.9

SR 16.11.3.1

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.1

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.1

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.1

SR 16.11.3.10

E

F

H

G

NA

16.11.3-14

I

03/27/99

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

Table 16.11.3-1

LIQUID EFFLUENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION

OPERATING CONDITIONS AND SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS

CONDITION

REFERENCED

MINIMUM

FROM

SURVEILLANCE

REQUIRED

INSTRUMENT

CHANNELS

APPLICABILITY

REQUIREMENTS

ACTION B.1

e.

Keowee Hydroelectric

NA

SR 16.11.3.11

NA

Tailrace Discharge (a'

4.

Continuous Composite

Sampler

3 Chemical Treatment

1

At all times

SR 16.11.3.2

H

Pond Composite Sampler

SR 16.11.3.10

and Sampler Flow Monitor

(Turbine Building Sumps

Effluent)

(a)

Flow is determined from the number of hydro units operating. If no hydro units are operating, leakage flow will be

assumed to be 38 cfs based on historical data.

16.11.3-15

03/27/99

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

Table 16.11.3-2

GASEOUS EFFLUENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION

OPERATING CONDITIONS AND SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS

MINIMUM

CONDITION

REFERENCED

CHANNELS

FROM

(PER RELEASE

SURVEILLANCE

REQUIRED

INSTRUMENT

PATH)

APPLICABILITY

REQUIREMENTS

ACTION CA

1.

Unit Vent Monitoring System

a.

Noble Gas Activity

Monitor Providing Alarm

and Automatic

Termination of

Containment Purge

Release (RIA45 - Purge

Isolation Function)

b.

Noble Gas Activity

Monitor Providing Alarm.

(RIA-45 - Vent Stack

Monitor Function)

c.

Iodine Sampler

d.

Particulate Sampler

e.

Effluent Flow Rate

Monitor (Unit Vent Flow)

(GWD CR0037)

f.

Sampler Flow Rate

Monitor W, (Annunciator)

g.

Effluent Flow Rate

Monitor (Containment

Purge) (PR CR0082)

h.

CSAE Off Gas Monitor

(RIA-40)

2.

Interim Radwaste Building

Ventilation Monitoring System

a.

Noble Gas Activity

Monitor (RIA - 53)

b.

Iodine Sampler

c.

Particulate Sampler

d.

Effluent Flow Rate

Monitor (Interim

Radwaste Exhaust)

(GWD FTO082)

e.

Sampler Flow Rate

Monitorl') (Annunciator)

At All Times

At all times

At All Times

1

During Containment

Purge Operation

During Operation

of CSAE

At All Times

1

At All Times

16.11.3-16

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.4

SR 16.11.3.7

SR 16.11.3.9

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.4

SR 16.11.3.7

SR 16.11.3.9

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.5

SR 16.11.3.8

SR 16.11.3.9

K

L

J

NA

J

M

K

SR

16.11.3.2

16.11.3.4

16.11.3.7

16.11.3.9

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

L

J

NA

1

03/27/99

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

Table 16.11.3-2

GASEOUS EFFLUENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION

OPERATING CONDITIONS AND SURVEILLANCE REQUIREMENTS

MINIMUM

CONDITION

REFERENCED

CHANNELS

FROM

(PER RELEASE

SURVEILLANCE

REQUIRED

INSTRUMENT

PATH)

APPLICABILITY

REQUIREMENTS

ACTION C.1

3.Hot Machine Shop Ventilation

Sampling System

a.

Iodine Sampler

b.

Particulate Sampler

c.

Effluent Flow Rate

Monitor (Hot Machine

Shop Exhaust)

(Totalizer)

d.

Sampler Flow Rate

Monitor 0ý (Annunciator)

4.

Radwaste Facility Ventilation

Monitoring System

a.

Noble Gas Activity

Monitor (4-RIA-45)

b.

Iodine Sampler

c.

Particulate Sampler

d.

Effluent Flow Rate

Monitor (Radwaste

Facility Exhaust) (0VS

CR2060)

e.

Sampler Flow Rate

Monitor 41) (Annunciator)

5. Waste Gas Holdup Tanks

a.

Noble Gas Activity

Monitor - Providing

Alarm and Automatic

Termination of Release

(RIA-37,-38)b

b.

Effluent Flow Rate

Monitor (Waste Gas

Discharge Flow) (GWD

CR033)

1

At All Times

1

At All Times

1

During Waste Gas

Holdup Tank Releases

During Waste Gas

Holdup Tank Releases

16.11.3-17

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.4

SR 16.11.3.7

SR 16.11.3.9

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.2

SR 16.11.3.10

SR 16.11.3.1

SR 16.11.3.6

SR 16.11.3.9

SR 16.11.3.12

SR 16.11.3.1

SR 16A11.3.10

L

J

NA

K

L

J

NA

J

(a)Alarms indicating low flow may be substituted for flow measuring devices.

(b)Either Normal or High Range monitor is required dependent upon activity in tank being released.

1

03/27/99

Radioactive Effluent Monitoring Instrumentation

16.11.3

BASES

The radioactive liquid effluent instrumentation is provided to monitor and control, as applicable,

the releases of radioactive materials in liquid effluents during actual or potential releases. The

alarm/trip setpoints for these instruments shall be calculated in accordance with NRC approved

methods in the ODCM to assure that the alarmtrip will occur prior to exceeding 10 times the

limits of 10 CFR Part 20. The operability and use of this instrumentation is consistent with the

requirements of General Design Criteria 60, 63, and 64 of Appendix A to 10 CFR Part 50.

The radioactive gaseous effluent instrumentation is provided to monitor and control, as

applicable, the releases of radioactive materials in gaseous effluents during actual or potential

releases. The alarm/trip setpoints for these instruments shall be calculated in accordance with

NRC approved methods in the ODCM to assure that the alarm/trip will occur prior to exceeding

applicable dose limits in SLC 16.11.2. The operability end use of this instrumentation is

consistent with the requirements of General Design Criteria 60, 63, and 64 of Appendix A to 10

CFR Part 50.

For certain applicable cases, grab samples or flow estimates are required at frequencies

between every 4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months end every 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months upon RIA removal from service. SLC 16.11.3 does

not explicitly require Action (grab samples or flow estimates) to be initiated immediately upon

RIA removal from service, when removal is for the purposes of sample filter changeouts,

setpoint adjustments, service checks, or routine maintenance. Therefore, during the defined

short, controlled outages, Action is not required.

For the cases in which Action is defined as continuous sampling by auxiliary equipment (Action

L) initiation of continuous sampling by auxiliary sampling equipment requires approximately 1

hour. One hour is the accepted reasonable time to initiate collect and change samples.

Therefore. for the defined short, controlled outages (not to exceed 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months ), Action is not

required.

Failures such as blown instrument fuses, defective indicators, and faulted amplifiers are, in

many cases, revealed by alarm or annunciator action. Comparison of output and/or state of

independent channels measuring the same variable supplements this type of built-in

surveillance. Based on experience in operation of both conventional and nuclear systems, when

the unit is in operation, the minimum checking frequency stated is deemed adequate.

REFERENCES:

1. 10CFRPart20.

2. 10 CFR Part 50, Appendix A.

3. Offsite Dose Calculation Manual.

4. UFSAR, Section 7.2.3.4.

01/31/00 1

16.11.3-18

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

63. Which ONE of the following statements describes the operation of the startup feeder

breakers to TA and TB (6.9 kv) following a valid switchyard isolation and a subsequent

resetting of the switchyard isolation logic?

The breakers will open upon actuation of...

A. both channels of Switchyard isolation and will reclose automatically if in AUTO.

B. either channel of Switchyard isolation and will reclose automatically if in AUTO.

C. both channels of Switchyard isolation and will only reclose MANUALLY.

D. either channel of Switchyard isolation and will only reclose MANUALLY.

A) A

A. Correct, it takes both trains of Switchyard isolation to actuate the tripping of the 7kV

breakers and if the switchyard isolation signal is reset without taking the breakers to

manual the breakers will reclose automatically.

B. Incorrect, it takes both trains.

C. Incorrect, the breaker will reclose in automatic.

D. Incorrect, it takes both trains of Switchyard isolation to trip the 7kV breakers.

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol IX, OP-OC-EL-EPD, page 34 of 76.

EO - 15.1

K/A: 062K402 (2.5/2.7)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: C

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

64. Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes how to reset a 230 KV

SWYD Yellow Bus Differential Lockout?

The 230 KV SWYD Yellow Bus Differential Lockout must be manually reset via ...

A. switches on the affected PCBs.

B. switches in the 230 KV relay house.

C. pushbuttons on cable room panels.

D. control room reset pushbuttons.

A) B

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol IX, OP-OC-EL-CB, page 35 of 57.

EO - 5.2

K/A: 062K404 (2.2/2.9)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

65. Plant conditions:

-

Reactor power = 100%

Which ONE of the following will result from de-energizing the KU panelboard?

A. All ICS stations will transfer to HAND and NI-9 will fail LOW

B. EHC cabinets and FDWP turbine control will be de-energized

C. ICS feedwater control will be available ONLY in automatic mode

D. Non-nuclear instrumentation and fire protection system will lose power

A) C

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol IX, OP-OC-EL-DCD, page 36 of 55.

EO - 6.3

K/A: 063K201 (2.9/3.1)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

66. After a switchyard isolation is initiated, which one of the following is the purpose for the

8.5 sec timer on the Keowee Hydro Unit?

A. Prevent closing of the Keowee overhead breaker (ACB-1/2), until timer has timed

out, to ensure separation of the unit from the 230 KV red bus.

B. Prevent closing of the Keowee overhead breaker (ACB-1/2), until timer has timed

out, to ensure all RCPS have tripped.

C. It initiates a trip signal to the underground breaker (ACB 3/4), after it times out, if

that unit was generating to the grid at the time the emergency start signal was

generated.

D. It initiates a trip signal to the underground breaker (ACB 3/4), until timer has timed

out, if that unit was generating to the grid at the time the emergency start signal was

generated to ensure all RCPS have tripped.

A) B

After a SWYD isolation, the 8.5 sec timer ensures ACB 1/2 will not close to ensure that all

RCPs will have tripped due to a loss of power longer than 3 seconds.

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol IX, OP-OC-EL-KHG, page 26 of 33.

EO - 5

K/A: 064A302 (3.4/3.7) (This K/A is for EDG, however, Oconee has hydro-electric)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

67. Plant conditions:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

- Reactor power = 100%

CURRENT CONDITIONS:

- Instrument Air pressure is rapidly DECREASING

- NO ES actuation signals have been received

Assume NO operator actions are taken

The LDST level will decrease and the pressurizer level will increase.

Which one of the following has caused this?

A. HP-5 and HP-31 both failed open.

B. HP-5 and HP-31 both failed closed.

C. HP-5 failed closed and HP-31 failed open.

D. HP-5 failed open and HP-31 failed closed.

A) C

HP-5 will fail closed isolating all letdown, which stops input to the LDST. HP-31 fails

open increasing input to the PZR.

K/A: 065AK303 (2.9/3.4)

T1G3, T1 G2

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 20 SSS044701 SSS044701

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

68. Which of the following areas contain material

fire?

A.

B.

C.

D.

A)

A.

B.

C.

D.

which would be limited to a Class "B"

Document control storage vault.

"A" ES 4160V switch gear room.

TB lube oil purifier.

I&C calibration lab in maintenance facility.

C

Paper Class "A".

Electical equipment Class "C".

CORRECT: Oil Class "B"

No fire hazard for Class "B"

Reference: Nuclear System Directives 112 and 316

GET

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

69. Given the following plant conditions:

- Fire in the cable spreading room, the Control Room has been evacuated (no

time to take actions prior to leaving control room) and transfer to the Aux

Shutdown Panel is in progess.

- During the transfer, RCS pressure decreased to 1400 psig and initiated

Engineering Safeguards.

Which one of the following identifies the starting status of the Keowee Hydro

Generators for this scenario?

A.

The Keowee Hydo Generators will ONLY auto start following a loss of

power to the Main Feeder Buses.

B.

Can ONLY be manually started from the Oconee Control Room.

C.

Should have started when the local/remote switches transferred Keowee

control to the Oconee Control Room.

D.

Should have auto started as a result of the Engineering Safeguards

actuation.

A) D

A. Local start is not required, auto start still functions.

B. Auto start still functions.

C. The transfer switch will not start the Keowee Emergency Generator.

D. CORRECT, ES actuates on low RCS pressure, AND this is the one circuit that ES will still

actuate when control is transfered to the RSP.

Reference: Vol. IX, Keowee Hydro Generators.

(This K/A has to do with ED/G. However, Oconee use hydroelectric)

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

70. Unit 1 plant conditions:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

- DATE / TIME = 3-14-99 / 0015

"- "1B" GWD Tank release commenced

- Waste Gas Flow Monitor "OOS"

"- "1B" GWD Tank pressure = 68 psig

CURRENT CONDITIONS:

-DATE / TIME = 3-14-99 / 0245

- Release completed

"-"1B" GWD Tank pressure = 5 psig

Which ONE of the following indicates the estimated flow rate (scfm) for the 1 B GWD

Tank release?

SEE ATTACHED: (1108/01, Encl. 3.3, GWD Tank Volume vs Pressure Curve)

A. 42

B. 32

C. 26

D. 10

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

A) B

Flow estimate:

A. Incorrect, directly from the curve; 68 psig = 6300 scf 150

= 42 scfm

B. Correct, 68 to 5 psig ý 4800 scf 150 minutes = 32 scfm

C. Incorrect, mis-reading curve at 58 psig instead of 68 psig;

58 psig ý 5500 scf - 1500 scf 150 minutes = 26 scfm

D. Incorrect, directly from the curve; 5 psig = 1500 scf 150

= 10 scfm

Required reference: 1108/01, Encl. 3.3, GWD Tank Volume vs Pressure Curve

K/A: 071A202 (3.3/3.6)

T2G1, T2G1

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 57 WE011101 WE011101

SLC 16.11-3.5.b,(J) states effulent flow rate monitor can be

OOS and releases continue provided the flow rate is estimated

at least one every four hours.

Enclosure 3.3

OP/0/A/I 108/001

GWD Tank Volume Vs. Pressure Curve (A, B, 3A, 3B)

Page 1 of 1

xx

I

0

5

10

15 20 25

30 35

40

45

50

55 "60 65

70

75

80

85 90

95

PRESSURE (PSI)

Gwd tank l.bmp

9

8

7

6

"LL

0to

W :

0

H-

5

100

2z6

ell

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

71. Which ONE of the following is the purpose for performing a check source of an Area

Radiation Monitor?

A.

To perform a calibration of the monitor's output circuitry.

B.

To verify the monitor's power source voltage is at the proper level.

C.

To ensure the detector and its circuits respond to radiation.

D.

To provide an output indication for adjustment of the alarm setpoints.

A) C

Reference: Vol 1, Radiation Indicating Alarms

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

72. Concerning the Sorrento Radiation Monitoring System, which ONE of the following is

correct?

The RM-80 ...

A. outputs directly to any associated interlock functions.

B. outputs directly to the control room view nodes.

C. will NOT function without the Transient Monitor System.

D. will NOT provide local indication of sample flow rate.

A) A

A. Correct. Interlocks will operate even if Transient Monitor system computer is

B.

C.

D.

OOS.

Incorrect. Outputs to Transient Monitor System and then to View Nodes.

Incorrect. RM-80 will function with the Transient Monitor System OOS.

Incorrect. Does provide local indication of sample flow rate.

K/A: 072K403 (3.2/3.6)

RO - T2GI

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 28 RAD010702 RAD010702

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

73. Plant conditions:

- Unit 1 = MODE 1

- Unit 2 = MODE 5

- 2B CCW pump operating

- Unit 3 = MODE 1

Which ONE of the following is correct if 2B CCW pump is secured?

A. 2CCW-26/28 and 2V-87/88 will remain in their current position

B. The CCW inlet line high point vent valves, 2CCW-26/28, will open

C. The continuous priming tank normal inlet control valve, 2V-87, will closes

D. The continuous priming tank emergency inlet control valve, 2V-88, will opens

A) A

A. Correct: Valves remain "as is" due to CCWPs continuing to operate on Unit 3.

B. Incorrect: Open on first CCW pump start.

C. Incorrect: Correct if not CCW pump on Unit 2 or 3 operating or both CVP secured

D. Incorrect: Correct if not CCW pump on Unit 2 or 3 operating or both CVP secured

K/A: 075A202 (2.5/2.7)

RO - T2G2

Bank

Reference: Facility updated question bank question 33 STG040801

STG040801

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

74. Which one of the following is correct?

will trip SSF OTS1 normal power supply breaker from B2T-4 which will

A. Either an ES channel 2 on any unit OR a maximum motor bearing oil temperature

of 160°F / trip OTS1-2 (SSF ASW PUMP) breaker.

B. Either a source undervoltage for > 30 seconds OR a maximum pump bearing oil

temperature of 160'F / close OTS1-4 (SSF DIESEL GENERATOR) breaker.

C. Either an ES channel 1 on any unit OR a Unit 2 channel "A" loadshed / trip

OTS1-2 (SSF ASW PUMP) breaker.

D. Either a source undervoltage for > 30 seconds OR the full load current for the SSF

auxiliary service water pump is 240 amps / close OTS1-4 (SSF DIESEL

GENERATOR) breaker.

A) C

Reference: Lesson Plans Book 1 of 2 Vol V, OP-OC-EAP-SSF , page 39 of 83.

EO - 21

K/A: 076K121 (2.7/2.9)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

75. Which one of the following is correct, concerning HPSW pump operation with respect

to a loss of power to a main feeder bus (MFB)?

A. HPSW pumps are powered from MCC 1XE which is fed from load center 1X3

normally and from 1X2 as an alternate source. Therefore, the HPSW pumps will be

unaffected. However, if the HPSW pumps A and B are not running, they will BOTH

get an auto start signal upon loss of power to 1 X6 due to 1 X6 feeding breaker #15,

the power supply for EWST level control.

B. HPSW pumps are powered from the unit 1 MFBs. If one MFB is de-energized then

the remaining HPSW pumps are vulnerable to single failure of the other unit 1 MFB.

Backup power is NOT available.

C. HPSW pumps are powered from MCC 1XE which is fed from load center 1X3

normally and from 1X2 as an alternate source for units 1 and 2. Therefore, Unit 1

and 2s HPSW pumps will be unaffected. Unit 3s HPSW pumps are powered from

the unit 3 MFBs. If one Unit 3 MFB is de-energized then the remaining Unit 3

HPSW pumps are vulnerable to single failure of the other unit 3 MFB. Backup

power is NOT available.

D. HPSW pumps are powered from all three units MFBs. If one MFB is de-energized

then the remaining HPSW pumps can be powered from the other units MFBs.

A) B

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol X, OP-OC-SSS-HPW , page 27 of 33.

EO - 17.3

K/A:076K201 (2.7/2.7)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: C

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

76. Which one of the following sets of IA/AlA symptoms is correct for an IA line break?

A. BOTH the IA AND the AIA systems will begin losing pressure. The IA check valves

will all close. The three AIA compressors will sequentially start, if in automatic, as

pressure drops from 88 psig to 85 psig.

B. ONLY the IA system will begin losing pressure because it operates at a much

higher pressure. The IA check valves will NOT close because the lower pressure

will tend to be on the AIA system side.

C. ONLY the IA system will begin losing pressure because it operates at a much

higher pressure. At 88 psig, AIA system pressure, the three AIA compressors will

start if in Automatic.

D. BOTH the IA AND the AIA systems will begin losing pressure. At 88 psig, AIA

system pressure, the three AIA compressors will start if in Automatic.

A) D

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol X, OP-OC-SSS-IA, page 37 of 49.

EO - 25 and 28

K/A:078K303 (3.0/3.4)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: C

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

77. Given the following plant conditions:

- Reactor trip from full power.

- A fire is in progress on the startup transformer.

- A Loss of Offsite Power.

- Fire header pressure has decreased to 100 psig.

Which one of the

water pressure?

A.

B.

C.

D.

following will provide IMMEDIATE (within 5 seconds) fire fighting

HPSW pump "A" only.

HPSW pump "A" AND "B".

Jockey fire pump.

Elevated Water Storage Tank.

A) D

A. Keowee Units are NOT on line yet.

B. Keowee Units are NOT on line yet

C. Keowee Units are NOT on line yet

D. Correct answer - power independei

Keowee requires 15 seconds.

Reference: Vol I, Actions Following a Fire

Vol. IX, Keowee Hydro Generators.

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

78. Plant conditions:

- ICS is in full automatic (Integrated Mode)

- Control Rod Group 6 at 78% withdrawn

Which ONE of the following sets of plant conditions would cause the Asymmetric Rod

Runback logic to initiate an ICS runback?

Core Thermal Power Demand (CTPD) and NI Power are...

A. 65%; the Group 4 Diamond "out limit" is lost.

B. 55%; the Group 5 Diamond "in limit" is received.

C. 61%; the Group 6 Diamond "in limit" is received.

D. 68%; the Group 7 Diamond "in limit" is received.

A) C

A. INCORRECT - The out-limits for the safety groups must be accompanied by an

asymmetric fault.

B. INCORRECT - Power needs to be >60% to satisfy the AND gate.

C. CORRECT - If at gp 6 @ 78% and an in-limit received, this implies an asymmetric

fault must exist and group 5 > 80%.

D. INCORRECT - Group 6 must be >80% for a group 7 in-limit to generate runback.

K/A: AO1AA11 (3.7/3.7)

T1G2, T1G2

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank question 41

IC020901

ASYMMETRIC ROD RUNBACK LOGIC OP-OC-CRI-5.

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

79. Unit 1 conditions:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

- Reactor power = 100%

CURRENT CONDITIONS:

- Spurious Turbine/Generator Trip

- CT-1 Transformer lockout

- 1T Transformer lockout

- 1A and 1B OTSG S/U levels = 35" and increasing

- CETCs = 548°F and decreasing

Which ONE of the following describes the correct operator action?

A. Take manual control of 1FDW-315 and 316 (EFDW Control Valves), and reduce

XSUR levels to 30" to prevent overcooling.

B. Throttle OTSG feedwater flow as required to minimize cooldown until a level of 240"

XSUR is reached.

C. Take manual control of 1 FDW-35 and 44 (Main FDW Control Valves), and reduce

OTSG levels to 25" SUR to stop overfeed.

D. Throttle OTSG feedwater flow as required to minimize cooldown until a level of 50%

Operating Range is reached.

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

A) B

A. Incorrect - Manual control of 315/316 is necessary but level should be established

to 240" since RCPs were tripped on the loss of electrical.

B. Correct - Required to prevent overcooling / pump/header flow limits being

exceeded.

C. Incorrect - This would be a correct statement if Main FDW was available and RCPs

are operating.

D. Incorrect - The first part of the statement is true concerning throttle feedwater but

level requirements are 240" XSUR not 50% OR.

K/A: A04AAI1 (3.5/3.3)

T1G2, T1 G2

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 47 CF023402 CF023402

CF-EF OBJ# 34 (37)

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

80. Which ONE of the following describes the operation of the AMSAC and the DSS

during an ATWS (Anticipated Transient Without Scram) with a complete loss of Main

Feedwater?

AMSAC trips the....

A.

regulating rods and starts the EFDWPs while DSS trips the main turbine.

B.

regulating rods while DSS trips the main turbine and starts the EFDWPs.

C.

main turbine and starts the EFDWPs while DSS trips the regulating rods.

D.

main turbine while DSS trips the regulating rods and starts the EFDWPs.

A) C

A. INCORRECT: AMSAC does not trip the regulating rods/ DSS does not trip the MT

B. INCORRECT: AMSAC does not trip the regulating rods / DSS does not trip the MT

or start EFWPT.

C. CORRECT: AMSAC trips the turbine, starts all EFDWPS, DSS trips the control rods

(also +125 added to setpoint/not part of this question).

D. INCORRECT: DSS does not start the EFDWPs.

Reference: Vol X, EFW System

E.O. 25

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

81. Unit 1 conditions:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

- Reactor power = 20%

- Unit startup in progress

- All RCPs operating

CURRENT CONDITIONS:

- Reactor trip

- Reactor power = 1% and decreasing

- RCS pressure = 1950 psig and decreasing

- Condenser vacuum = 19 inches and decreasing

- 1A2 RCP tripped

Which ONE of the following is the cause of the reactor trip?

A. Low RCS pressure.

B. Power to flow to imbalance.

C. Main turbine anticipatory.

D. Loss of feedwater anticipatory trip.

A) D

A. Incorrect - RCS pressure > 1810 psig.

B. Incorrect - Rx power < min. flux/flow/imb trip setpoint.

C. Incorrect - Rx power < 29.75%, turb. anticipatory trip

bypassed.

D. Correct - Operating MFDWP tripped on low vacuum.

K/A E02EK11 (3.6/3.6)

T1G2, T1G2

Bank

Reference: Facility updated question bank (Question 5 IC090301

IC090301)

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

82. Unit 3 plant conditions:

- Reactor Building Pressure = 3.5 psig

- RCS Pressure (ICCM) = 800 psig

- RCS Tc = 4450F

- RCS Th = 465*F

- An average of ALL CETCs = 4890F

- An average of 5 highest CETCs (ICCM Tr.B) = 518'F

- An average of the 5 highest of ALL qualified CETC's = 5470F

Which ONE of the following is the correct Train "B" ICCM Core subcooling margin

indication the operator will observe on the SCM window LED on UBI?

SEE ATTACHMENT: EOP Encl. 5.18, P/T Curves

A. 0°F not flashing

B. (+) 90F not flashing

C. 00F flashing

D. (-) 90F flashing

A) C

A. incorrect - number "0" flashes in the sat. band

B. incorrect - uses average of all CETC's

C. correct - Average of the 5 highest CETC from B Train w/ 800 psig => saturated

condition

D. Incorrect - uses 5 highest of ALL CETC's

Required reference: EOP Encl. 5.18, P/T Curves

K/A: E03EK21 (3.4/3.8)

T1G1, T1G1

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 21 IC084302 IC084302

Enclosure 5.18

P/T Curves

EP/1/AI1800/001

Page 1 of 3

Normal Containment (P., < 3 psig):

Use OAC or ICCM.

Abnormal Containment (P.. > 3 psig): Use ICCM only.

I

UNACCEPTABLE REGION

Decrease Pressure

10

150

200

I

2400

2200

20D0

1800

1600

1400

1200

1000

80o

600

400

200

0

/

)1

/

I.

I/

ThT~

11111

~ii~~ii

III .......

...

.....

t ... ....

I ... .......

1 .

1 1 ....

..

Ii

...

..

....

j ....

I....

.....

..

II.'I

IlgA

JAI

"Con'

"stat'

.4

S..........

.......

S......

.......

S......

... .....

..

Co.¢

1F'

'I

0

6

Co

St

0.

~~~~~~~~~~.

....

..

.

..

.

..

. . ..

. . .

. . . ..

. . ........

. ......

..

.......

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~..

.

. . . . . . . . . .. . . ....

. . ..

. . . ....

..

. . . ..

. . ......

.

. ..

. .

......

..

.

. .....

.. ..

........

. ...

........

.

.. ........

.

.......

.. ....

.... .

. ..

....

.

. .........

.. ...... .

.~~

A

-=i

S. ..

..

. .. .

. ..

.. .

.. .. ...

. ..

......... 4 ..... ..

. ..

........

~~~~~~~..

..

.. ...

...

. .. . ..

. .. ...

. .......

...

.

....

...

... .........

R E IO

.....

...

..... .........

...

.....

I plement ICC Procedure

..

.

.. . .

. . . .

. .

.. . . .

. . ..

..... 4 ...... ...

.. ...................

...... ... ....... . ......

. .... ...

.... ..... .

.

.. ......

..... .

...

.

.... ..

... .......

.. ...... ... ... . .. ... ... . .. .

.. .. .. .

.. .....

...........

...... . ... .. .. .. ... . . .. ...

250

300

350

400

450

500

550

600

650

700

REACTOR COOLANT TEMPERATURE (OF)

4

C)

U)

0

U

Il/I

'-4"

-ti--H

lOll

LU

Draft AAA

...

.. .....

.4

Enclosure 5.18

P/T Curves

EP/1/A/1800/001

Page 3 of 3

Normal Containment (P,. < 3 psig):

Use OAC or ICCM.

Abnormal Containmenl (&. > 3 psig): Use ICCM only.

600

500

400

300

200

100

0

50

100

150

200

250

300

350

400

450

500

REACTOR COOLANT TEMPERATURE (0F)

1

0.

z

0

U

Draft AAA

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

83. Given the following plant conditions:

- The reactor is tripped.

- RCS subcooled margin is zero.

Which of the following actions would result in increasing RCS subcooling margin?

A.

Decrease RCS pressurizer level.

B.

Decrease RCS hot leg flow.

C.

Increase RCS loop pressure.

D.

Increase RCS hot leg temperature.

A) C

A- This would further reduce RCS pressure, if a bubble still exists in the PZR, level may

increase if voids are forming.

B- This would decrease the ability to transfer heat, and therefore would not increase SCM

C- CORRECT Raising pressure will increase the SCM by moving the RCS up and to the left on

the SPDS trace moving away from the saturation and zero SCM line.

D- This would move the RCS to the right on the ICCM trace and therefore decrease RCS SCM.

Reference: Vol V, Bk 1 of 2, Loss of Subcooling

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

84. Given the following plant conditions:

- Time is 15 minutes after a reactor trip due to loss of both Main Feedwater

Pumps.

- No Emergency Feedwater Pumps are operating.

- CETCs is 590°F and increasing.

- RCS pressure is 2325 psig and increasing.

- All 4 RCPs are running.

- "IA" OTSG level indicates 15 inches XSUR.

- "IN' OTSG pressure is 1010 psig and stable.

- "1 B" OTSG level indicates 13 inches XSUR.

- "1 B" OTSG pressure is 800 psig and decreasing.

- RCS heat up rate is +30°F / Hr.

- RCP "lAl" seal supply is 10 gpm.

Which of the following action(s) is required concerning operation of the RCPs?

A.

Stop one RCP per loop.

B.

Stop RCP lA1.

C.

Stop all 4 RCPs.

D.

Stop all but one RCP.

A) D

A. RNO Step 3 of the EOP's Loss of Heat transfer tab, reduces the running RCPs to 1 per loop

but this step does not apply because HPI F/C would have been initiated.

B. Misconception that leave 1 RCP for spray flow.

C. Do not place plant in NC with no other heat removal sources (OTSG), also have not

increased T incore 50° since the trip.

D. Correct; RULE 4 (Initiation of HPI Forced Cooling) will have been perfromed because RCS

pressure is > 2300 psig and no SG feed. RULE 4 reduces operating RCPs to one.

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

85. With Unit 1 operating at 100% power and the ICS in the fully integrated mode, a loss of

KI (ICS AUTO) occurs. Which ONE of the following will occur IF the reactor trips one

minute later?

ASSUME NO OPERATOR ACTION

A. Turbine Bypass Valves (TBVs) FAIL closed causing a RCS heatup.

B. Excessive Main FDW flow will cause RCS overcooling.

C. Turbine bypass valves fail open causing overcooling.

D. Reduced MFW flow will cause an RCS heatup.

A) B

A. Incorrect: TBVs are operable in manual on KU (hand) source.

B.Correct: Loss of KI reverts all stations to manual. FDW valves and pumps remain in manual

and FDW does not runback upon unit trip.

C.Incorrect: TBVs are operable in manual on KU (hand) source.

D.Incorrect: TBVs are operable in manual on KU (hand) source.

K/A: E05EA1 1 (4.2/4.2

T1G1, T1G1

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 31 STG123302 STG123302

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

86. Which one of the following is the reason why post LOCA boron dilution valves are

opened following a LOCA?

A. To limit localized boric acid concentrations in the core.

B. To limit localized boric acid concentrations in the RB Emergency Sump.

C. To prevent the moderator temperature coefficient from going positive.

D. To allow for RCS cooldown where injection flow only is required for cooling.

A) A

Reference: Book II of II, Vol 6, OP-OC-EAP-E31, page 11 of 11.

EO-4

K/A: E08EK22 (4.0/4.0)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

87. Given the following plant conditions:

- Reactor trip has occurred.

- Natural Circulation in progress with Emergency Feedwater.

- 30 minutes later, a transition is made from EFW to MFW.

Which of the following identifies the resulting core delta T (Thot minus Tcold)

following this transition?

A.

Decreases because OTSG saturation temperature decreases.

B.

Decreases because natural circulation flow in the RCS decreases due to a

higher thermal center with MFW.

C.

Increases because natural circulation flow in the RCS decreases due to

hotter water with MFW.

D.

Remains the same because of the hotter water and lower thermal center

with MFW.

A) C

A. This only affects the OTSG Tcold.

B. The thermal center is lower with MFW.

C. CORRECT: Lower thermal center less driving head lower flow therefore higher delta T

D. With lower flow and lower center delta T has to change.

Reference: Vol VII, Accident Mitigation Core Cooling mechanics

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

88. Unit 3 plant conditions:

- Reactor power = 100%

- Statalarm 3SA-8/D3 (FDWPT A Turning Gear Motor Overload) actuates

- The CRSRO is in the OSC

Which ONE of the following is correct per NSD-509 (Site Standards in Support of

Operational Focus)?

After acknowledging the alarm the BOP must...

A. brief the OSM on the alarm OR call the WCC and communicate the alarm to the

WCC SRO.

B. page the CRSRO to the Control Room using the Plant PA system AND call the

WCC and communicate the alarm to the WCC SRO.

C. brief the CRSRO on the alarm upon return to the Control Room OR find the

CRSRO and communicate the alarm face-to-face.

D. page the CRSRO to the Control Room using the Plant PA system AND

communicate the alarm to the OSM.

A) C

Reference: NSD-509

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

89. Plant conditions:

INITIAL CONDITIONS:

- Reactor power = 75%

CURRENT CONDITIONS:

- A load rejection occurs

- Reactor power is decreasing

- Pressurizer subcooled

When looking at a Unit "Pressure vs. Temperature" or P/T screen, which ONE of the

following correctly describes the indication you would observe?

The yellow point would...

A. turn cyan and move down and left on the P/T screen.

B. turn cyan and "SUBCOOLED PZR" would appear on the lower right hand corner of

the screen.

C. stay yellow and "SUBCOOLED PZR" would appear on the lower right hand corner

of the screen.

D. stay yellow and move to the left and up on the P/T screen.

A) D

K/A: G2.1.19 (3.0/3.0)

RO - T3

Bank

Reference:

Facility updated question bank 37 SF100701

SF100701

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

90. Which one of the following set of requirements is correct for "Out of Sequencing of

Procedure Steps" as stated in OMP 1-9, "Use of Procedures?"

A. The performer AND the Operations Shift Manager shall initial the applicable step(s).

An evaluation of the consequences of the change shall be performed by the

Operations Shift Manager. An explanation for the sequence change shall be

documented on the procedure.

B. The performer ONLY shall initial the applicable step(s). The re-sequencing of the

step does not alter the acceptance criteria or overall intent of the procedure. An

evaluation of the consequences of the change shall be performed by the

Operations Shift Manager.

C. The performer AND the Operations Shift Manager shall initial the applicable step(s).

An evaluation of the consequences of the change shall be performed by the

Operations Shift Manager. The re-sequencing of the step MAY alter the

acceptance criteria or overall intent of the procedure.

D. The performer ONLY shall initial the applicable step(s). An evaluation of the

consequences of the change shall be performed by the Operations Shift Manager.

An explanation for the sequence change should be documented on the procedure.

A) A

Reference: Lesson Plans Vol X, OP-OC-BPS-BP, page 27 of 47.

EO - 5.5C.2

K/A: G2.1.20 (4.3/4.2)

RO/SRO: BOTH

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

91. Plant conditions:

"* A fire in the SSF Diesel Room has been detected

"* PBM Pushbutton is depressed for TWO seconds

Which ONE of the following is the response of the SSF Diesel Carbon Dioxide Fire

Suppression System?

A. Carbon dioxide is IMMEDIATELY discharged into the Diesel Room and stops

discharging after TWO seconds.

B. Carbon dioxide is IMMEDIATELY discharged into the Diesel Room and is

automatically stopped by a pre-set timer.

C. After -sixty (60) seconds, carbon dioxide is discharged into the Diesel Room and is

automatically stopped by a pre-set timer.

D. After -sixty (60) seconds, carbon dioxide is discharged into the Diesel Room for a

TWO second period.

A) C

A. Incorrect. If PBM pushbutton is used C02 does not actually discharge until about

60 sec. At the end of the first timer (60 sec.) another timer will actuate and a full

C02 system discharge will occur for about 60 sec.

B. Incorrect. See A

C. Correct. See A

D. Incorrect. See A

Reference: Lesson Plans Book 1 of 2 Vol V, OP-OC-EAP-SSF , page 46 of 83.

EO - 26.4

K/A: G2.1.28 (3.2/3.3)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: M

Author: rfa

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

92. Which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM MVAR load when operating at 500 MW

at a .9 Power Factor, and 30 psig H2 in generator?

SEE ATTACHMENT: Generator Capability Curve

A. 675

B. 445

C. 321

D. 140

A) B

Reference:

EO - 7

Book I of II, Vol 2, OP-OC-STG-01 5, page 40 of 45.

K/A: G2.1.7 (3.7/4.4)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: C

Author: rfa

Enclosure 4.7

Capability Curve

Reference Use

I

C,,

S

0

C

0

C

OP/i/A/ 106/001

Page 1 of I

CURVE AB LIMITED BY FIELD HEATING

CURVE BC LIMITEO BY ARMATURE HEATING

CURVE CD LIMITED BY ARMATURE CORE END HEATING

A5/

'1.h7

OCONEE NRC RO EXAM

02-18-2002

1 POINT

93. Which of the following will REQUIRE INITIATION of a reactor shutdown per Technical

Specifications?

SEE ATTACHMENT: TS 3.4.13 (RCS Operational Leakage)

A.

Unidentified RCS leakage of 1 gpm for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

B.

Identified RCS leakage of 10 gpm for 1 hour1.157407e-5 days 2.777778e-4 hours 1.653439e-6 weeks 3.805e-7 months .

C.

300 gpd total primary to secondary leakage through ALL OSTG's OR 150

gpd primary to secondary leakage through any one OTSG for 12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months .

D.

300 gpd total primary to secondary leakage through ALL OSTG's AND 150

gpd primary to secondary leakage through any one OTSG for 5 hours5.787037e-5 days 0.00139 hours 8.267196e-6 weeks 1.9025e-6 months .

A) D

Reference required: TS 3.4.13

K/A: 2.2.22 (3.4/4.1)

RO/SRO: Both

Level: M

Author: rfa

RCS Operational LEAKAGE

3.4.13

3.4 REACTOR COOLANT SYSTEM (RCS)

3.4.13 RCS Operational LEAKAGE

LCO 3.4.13

RCS operational LEAKAGE shall be limited to:

a.

No pressure boundary LEAKAGE;

b.

1 gpm unidentified LEAKAGE;

C.

10 gpm identified LEAKAGE;

d.

300 gallon per day total primary to secondary LEAKAGE through all

steam generators (SGs); and

e.

150 gallon per day primary to secondary LEAKAGE

through any one SG.

APPLICABILITY:

MODES 1, 2, 3, and 4.

ACTIONS

CONDITION

REQUIRED ACTION

COMPLETION TIME

A.

RCS LEAKAGE not

A.1

Reduce LEAKAGE to

4 hours4.62963e-5 days 0.00111 hours 6.613757e-6 weeks 1.522e-6 months

within limits for reasons

within limits.

other than pressure

boundary LEAKAGE.

B. Required Action and

B.1

Be in MODE 3.

12 hours1.388889e-4 days 0.00333 hours 1.984127e-5 weeks 4.566e-6 months

associated Completion

Time of Condition A not

AND

met.

B.2

Be in MODE 5.

36 hours4.166667e-4 days 0.01 hours 5.952381e-5 weeks 1.3698e-5 months